Will it be possible for their children to NOT have dimples? EXPLAIN!

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If both mom and dad do have dimples.

Jun 16th, 2015

Thank you for the opportunity to help you with your question!

Hi, Apoe23! We meet again ;) I guess my question to you is are dimples dominant in this scenario?

If dimples ARE dominant, then the child could potentially not have dimples... we need to look at the genotype instead of the phenotype (Dimples). If mom and dad are both Heterozygous (Dd and Dd) then there is a 25% chance the child could have dimples. 

             D                 d

D        DD            Dd

d        Dd              dd <---- no dimples

However, if it is dominant and one parent is homozygous for dimples, then there is no chance because there would be at least one dominant gene in each square 

             D                 D

D        DD            DD

d        Dd              Dd 


The same can be said about recessive features. If dimples are recessive, then both parents must have both recessive genes (dd) So there would be NO chance. 


I hope this makes sense! I'm assuming the question states that the dimples are a dominant trait... if so, YES IT IS POSSIBLE AS LONG AS BOTH PARENTS ARE HETEROZYGOUS :) 


Please let me know if you need any clarification. I'm always happy to answer your questions.
Jun 16th, 2015

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