Thank you for the opportunity to help you with your question!

when n goes to infinite

f(x+1/n)===>f(x+1/infinite)

but

1/infinite=0

so we can write as fallows

{f(x+1/n)/f(x)}^n={f(x+0)f(x)}^n

={f(x)/f(x)}^n

= 1^n

=1^infinite

=1

so the answer is 1

Thank you for being kind to help but the answer is (c) e^(f'(x)/f(x)) :(

please wait for while i'll check again

i'm sorry i couldn't understand how it can be.please withdraw the question to get your money back..

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