100 multiple choice answer test
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1) In the United States, the standard for defining types of mental disorders is
contained in the
A) World Health Organization’s classification code.
B) American Psychological Association’s bylaws.
C) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.
D) American Psychiatric Association’s bylaws.
2) The Solarists are a cult whose members believe that they control the move-
ments of the sun with special hand gestures. What would the DSM-IV say
about this group?
A) The group suffers from Shared Delusion Psychosis.
B) While some of this group’s individual members may meet criteria for a DSM-
IV diagnosis, the DSM-IV does not diagnose groups.
C) Because a group of persons share a belief, however strange, the group must
be considered emotionally healthy.
D) The group is diagnosable because they are a cult.
3) What is Galen credited with?
A) performing the first human autopsies
B) providing the first biological explanation for mental disorders
C) demonstrating that the doctrine of the four humors was flawed
D) recognizing that psychological disorders could have both biological and psy-
4) Which statement about treatment of abnormal behavior in the Middle Ages is
A) Islamic forms of treatment were more humane than European approaches.
B) Although the Hippocratic tradition was continued in most of Europe, Islamic
countries emphasized demonology.
C) Scientific reasoning and humane treatments were valued in both European
and Islamic societies.
D) The Chinese emphasized prayer, the Europeans emphasized exercise, and the
Islamic peoples emphasized balancing the four bodily humors.
5) The approaches to treatment of the mentally ill during the Middle Ages in
Europe are best characterized as
6) Which of the following occurred in the late twentieth century?
A) the inpatient mentally ill population doubled
B) a movement of the mentally ill from institutions to the community
C) the establishment of large inpatient facilities for the mentally ill
D) dramatic increases in the cost of caring for the mentally ill
7) The study of hypnosis and its relationship to hysteria was the starting point
A) narrative therapy.
C) the medical model.
D) the mental hygiene movement.
8) Behaviorism was
A) a spin-off theory that elaborated on the psychoanalytic viewpoint.
B) a reaction to the lack of moral and spiritual factors in most theories at the
C) a way to diagnose patients without any ‘real’ psychological evidence.
D) a reaction to what the behaviorists perceived as a lack of scientific rigor in
9) One strength of case studies is
A) they can help prove causal relationships between variables.
B) they do not involve bias.
C) they can generate hypotheses.
D) they are usually highly accurate.
10) In a study of the effects of ice cream on mood, the mood after ice cream
exposure can be described as what?
A) a confounding variable
B) the independent variable
C) the dependent variable
D) a correlational variable Final Examination 3 Abnormal Psychology
11) Etiology is
A) a predisposition towards developing a disorder.
B) a condition that makes it less likely a person will experience the negative
consequences of stress.
C) the causal pattern of a disorder.
D) a condition that tends to maintain maladaptive behavior.
12) If having a gene for Parkinson’s Disease guarantees that Parkinson’s Disease
will develop, the presence of the gene can be described as a
A) contributory cause.
B) sufficient cause.
C) risk factor.
D) necessary cause.
13) In the diathesis-stress model, a stressor is
A) a biological vulnerability.
B) a necessary or contributory cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms.
C) a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms.
D) a distal, sufficient cause of a mental disorder.
14) Dr. Simon, a psychiatrist, takes a biopsychosocial viewpoint of psychopathol-
ogy. Which of the following treatments is he most likely to suggest for Julia’s
current state of depression?
A) a combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs
B) intense psychotherapy
C) family therapy and a change in her work environment
D) a prolonged vacation
15) Damage to the pituitary would most likely lead to
A) a deficiency of catecholamines.
C) hormonal imbalance.
D) death. 4 Final Examination Abnormal Psychology
16) When examining heredity, mental disorders are almost always
A) caused by recessive genes.
B) caused by one particular gene.
C) caused by multiple genes.
D) not caused by genes.
17) Mental disorders are almost always influenced by multiple genes. This means
A) chemical circuits.
D) easy to discover.
18) If trait is highly heritable, it would be expected that
A) the concordance rate for dizygotic twins would be close to 100%.
B) the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be greater than the concor-
dance rate for dizygotic twins.
C) the concordance rate for dizygotic twins would be greater than the concor-
dance rate for monozygotic twins.
D) the concordance rate for dizygotic twins and monozygotic twins would be
19) George and Logan are brothers. They live in a small apartment in the city with
some other relatives. Their family is extremely poor. Their father is hardest on
George, the eldest, and sometimes physically abuses him. Which environ-
mental factor is likely to be more important in the later adjustment of George
A) Their poverty.
B) The fact that they live with other family members.
C) The physical abuse.
D) The overcrowding of their living situation.
20) Which of the following statements regarding divorce and psychopathology is
A) Divorce is a major source of psychopathology.
B) No causal relationship has been established between psychopathology and a
C) While a relationship between parental divorce and psychopathology has been
established, there is no data to suggest that divorced persons experience an
increased rate of psychopathology.
D) The adverse effects of parental divorce are always temporary.Final Examination 5 Abnormal Psychology
21) Ed has suffered a head injury in a car accident. He is referred to a psycholo-
gist to see what types of impairment now exist and to get some suggestions
for treatment. The best assessment strategy would be
A) neuropsychological tests.
B) a PET scan.
C) an MRI.
D) a CAT scan.
22) In which of the following circumstances would a clinician be most likely to
A) to find out what situations are likely to illicit problematic behavior
B) to evaluate the quality of the social environment
C) when a client is unable to describe their presenting problem
D) when other forms of clinical observation have yielded no evidence of abnor-
23) Which of the following is NOT a reason for using rating scales?
A) to increase reliability
B) to decrease objectivity
C) to provide structure
D) to allow standardized comparisons to be made
24) There are two general categories of psychological tests used in clinical prac-
tice. They are:
A) neuropsychological tests and standardized tests
B) intelligence tests and rating scales
C) projective tests and sentence completion tests
D) intelligence tests and personality tests
25) The use of lithium in the United States was delayed due to
A) the stigma associated with mental illness.
B) its addiction potential.
C) the fact that it could not be patented.
D) a lack of evidence to demonstrate that it was effective. 6 Final Examination Abnormal Psychology
26) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of behavior therapy?
A) The principles employed have been scientifically validated.
B) It targets specific behaviors.
C) It works well when the problem is medical in nature.
D) It usually achieves results in a relatively short period of time.
27) For which client is behavior therapy most likely to be effective?
A) Wilson, whose complaint is premature ejaculation.
B) Tamara, who is trying to understand the origins of her personality.
C) Angela, who has a variety of personality disorders.
D) Colin, who has been diagnosed with Schizophrenia.
28) Which of the following best illustrates the analysis of resistance?
A) explaining that a dream about riding a wild horse in a tunnel suggests strong
B) reminding a client who has become insulting toward a female therapist that
she is, after all, a helping professional and not the client’s abusive mother
C) asking the client to say whatever comes into his/her head, regardless of how
silly it sounds
D) noting that the client is able to talk freely about his mother but not report
anything about his father
29) Which of the following is the most significant challenge to establishing that
therapy is effective?
A) Confidentiality rules allow little follow up with past clients.
B) Placebo effects commonly occur.
C) Few psychotherapies are more effective than medical treatments.
D) Many people improve without formal treatment.
30) Who is likely to have the most severe stress?
A) Josh, who has just been told he has cancer and whose wife announces she is
leaving him when he tells her the news.
B) Lauren, who sees the clean-up of an accident and finds out later it involved
one of her friends.
C) Bill, who has a deadline the next day for an important project.
D) Anne, who is planning her wedding. Final Examination 7 Abnormal Psychology
31) The term "crisis" refers to:
A) a period of especially acute stress.
B) any time when a stressful situation exceeds one’s ability to cope.
C) encountering a number of stressors simultaneously.
D) any encounter that requires a readjustment of self concept.
32) Which of the following is a criticism of the life event scales?
A) No relationship has been found between illness and scores on these scales.
B) They do not recognize that multiple life changes will produce greater stress.
C) They do not recognize that joyful events can be stressful.
D) Peoples’ moods can have an impact on their ratings of stress.
33) Despite all the criticisms of the use of life stress scales,
A) today’s approaches to assessing the effects of life events are no better.
B) they are still the preferred method for measuring reactions to specific envi-
C) the finding that life change produces stress has been supported by other
D) their reliability and validity was never challenged.
34) Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
A) can have ill effects when it is sustained over time.
B) happens in response to exposure to viruses.
C) only happens if someone chooses "fight" rather than "flight".
D) helps a person relax.
35) Cortisol can be used to
A) decrease heart rate following sympathetic activation.
B) reduce inflammation.
C) stimulate the pituitary gland.
D) enhance immune responses.
A) produce antibodies.
B) mature in the brain.
C) increase the allostatic load.
D) are a type of virus. 8 Final Examination Abnormal Psychology
37) Research on stressful life events and the immune response found
A) there was no association between levels of stress and immune functioning.
B) greater overall stress eventually strengthened the immune system and slowed
the transition from HIV positive to AIDS.
C) greater overall stress led to more use of social support and better immune
D) greater overall stress was associated with more rapid transition from HIV posi-
tive to AIDS.
38) Stress-inoculation training:
A) involves learning new ways to think about an anticipated threat and then ap-
plying these techniques to several different types of threats.
B) is a form of cognitive preparation that can be used to minimize the impact of
any life challenge.
C) can be used to prepare for most any disaster.
D) prepares one to deal with a stressor by considering solutions to the problems
that are likely to arise.
39) Individuals who suffer from phobias
A) are unlikely to have other psychological diagnoses.
B) suffer from uncued panic attacks.
C) avoid the feared stimulus.
D) are likely to believe that their fear is justified.
40) Because SSRIs increase serotonin in the brain, what other function do they
provide which is thought to explain the effectiveness of the SSRIs in treating
A) they decrease serotonergic activity
B) they decrease noradrenergic activity
C) they increase noradrenergic activity
D) they increase serotonergic activity
41) Which brain structure is recognized as playing a central role in panic attacks?
D) locus coeruleusFinal Examination 9 Abnormal Psychology
42) Making catastrophic misinterpretations of bodily sensations, and fear of so-
cial situations in which they might have an attack are specific to
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) social phobia.
43) One of the main problems with the worry in generalized anxiety disorders is
A) it keeps people with the disorder feeling happier than if they don’t worry.
B) it keeps people distracted from what is really bothering them.
C) it is a form of avoidance and prevents extinction.
D) it increases the effects of operant conditioning on their fears.
44) Which of the following is necessary for a diagnosis of OCD?
A) unawareness of the irrational nature of the obsessions experienced
B) evidence of psychosis
C) the presence of compulsive behaviors
D) the symptomatic behavior causes distress
45) Which of the following is a true statement about Mowrer’s two-process theory
of avoidance learning?
A) The two processes that it refers to are classical and operant conditioning.
B) It provides an explanation for the development of all anxiety disorders.
C) It does not account for the effectiveness of extinction procedures in the treat-
ment of OCD.
D) While it suggests a mechanisms for the development of GAD, it does not ac-
count for the development of panic disorder and OCD.
46) Thought-action fusion is
A) support for the preparedness theory of obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B) the reason why trying to suppress unwanted thoughts often causes an in-
crease in those thoughts.
C) the belief that thinking about something is as bad as actually doing it.
D) a psychotic symptom that helps distinguish between anxiety disorders and
psychotic disorders. 10 Final Examination Abnormal Psychology
47) Which of the following must be present for at least 2 years in order for a diag-
nosis to be made?
A) bipolar II disorder
B) bipolar I disorder
C) major depressive disorder
48) A study of poor women in London found that ________ increased the likeli-
hood of developing depression after experiencing severe stress.
A) being in an intimate relationship
B) having religious faith
C) working outside of the home
D) having more than three children still at home.
49) This type of treatment emphasizes the depressed person’s need to become
more active and engaged with their environment and interpersonal relation-
A) behavioral activation therapy
B) cognitive therapy
C) interpersonal therapy
D) bright light therapy
50) Recent research on relapse among bipolar patients suggests that
A) stressful life events have very little influence.
B) personality styles interact with stress to increase the likelihood of relapse.
C) relapse is most likely among those with unrealistically positive attributional
D) the more frequently a person has bipolar episodes, the less likely stressful
events are able to induce a relapse.
51) Which of the following would eliminate a potential diagnosis of cyclothymia?
A) Between her more recent episodes, Carla functioned quite well for 3 weeks.
B) Gil had been showing both hypomanic and depressed symptoms for over
C) Bob’s most recent hypomanic episode lasted 3 days.
D) Carol was absolutely convinced that her mother wanted to kill her, although
there was no evidence for this. Final Examination 11 Abnormal Psychology
52) Which of the following is a hormonal abnormality associated with both bipolar
disorder and unipolar depression?
A) decreased cortisol levels
B) decreased thyroid hormone levels
C) increased cortisol levels
D) increased thyroid hormone levels
53) Behavior activation treatment
A) focuses on implementing cognitive changes.
B) combines pharmacotherapy and behavioral therapy.
C) emphasizes activity and involvement in interpersonal relationships.
D) combines interpersonal therapy and behavioral methodology.
54) Conditions involving physical complaints or disabilities occurring in the ab-
sence of any physical pathology that could account for them are
A) anxiety disorders.
B) somatoform disorders.
C) hypochondriacal disorders.
D) dissociative disorders.
55) Ryan has diabetes but has no trouble functioning. One day, his wife informs
him that she is leaving him. Ryan suddenly develops terrible pain in his back,
to the point he is unable to get out of bed. His wife agrees to stay for "a
while" to take care of him. Ryan probably has
A) body dysmorphic disorder.
B) conversion disorder.
C) pain disorder associated a general medical condition only.
D) pain disorder associated with psychological factors.
56) What do the somatoform and dissociative disorders have in common?
A) Both have onset during early childhood.
B) Both are characterized by physical complaints.
C) Both are more common in men.
D) Both appear to be ways of alleviating anxiety. 12 Final Examination Abnormal Psychology
57) The inability to learn new information is known as
A) retrograde amnesia.
B) anterograde amnesia.
C) selective amnesia.
D) localized amnesia.
58) Studies of the brains of individuals with DID
A) do not indicate any explanation for interpersonal amnesia.
B) have provided no consistent findings.
C) find no differences in brain activity associated with different identities.
D) support the assertion that DID is a real disorder.
59) When it comes to the effectiveness of treatment for dissociative disorders, we
A) that medications are worthless, but that psychotherapy is quite effective.
B) that anti-depressant medications are most effective in treating dissociative
C) that depersonalization is much more effectively treated than amnesia.
D) very little.
60) Cindy is 5 ‘ 6" tall and weighs 92 pounds. She is very concerned about her
weight. However, at times she finds herself eating large amounts of food -
several boxes of cookies, gallons of ice cream, entire cakes - all in an eve-
ning. Afterwards, she makes herself throw up. Cindy’s most likely diagnosis is
A) no disorder.
B) anorexia nervosa, restricting type.
C) anorexia nervosa, binge-eating/purging type.
D) bulimia nervosa, purging type.
61) Raquel has occasions when she eats enormous amounts of food in a short
time. Afterwards she will refuse to eat anything solid for a couple of days. Her
most likely diagnosis is
A) bulimia nervosa, nonpurging type.
B) anorexia nervosa, binge-purging type.
C) anorexia nervosa, restricting type.
D) bulimia nervosa, purging type. Final Examination 13 Abnormal Psychology
62) Which of the following is most commonly found in families of girls with an-
A) Children who reduce psychological tension in the family by dominating their
B) Sibling rivalry that breaks out into physical and verbal aggression.
C) Parents who are unconventional, dramatic, and antisocial.
D) Parents who emphasize rules, control, and good physical appearance.
63) The most common quality of parents’ interactions with their daughters who
have eating disorders is
A) lack of direction and rules.
D) unconditional love and acceptance.
64) Internalizing the "thin ideal" is strongly associated with
A) recovery from eating disorders.
B) body satisfaction.
C) negative affect.
D) attitudes about interpersonal relationships.
65) After bariatric surgery
A) some patients do not lose any weight.
B) some patients regain their weight.
C) most patients do not survive.
D) patients stay normal weight the rest of their lives.
66) Individuals with personality disorders
A) have a strong sense of self.
B) are unable to live up to societal expectations.
C) reject societal expectations.
D) comply with societal expectations. 14 Final Examination Abnormal Psychology
67) Unlike disorders like depression and PTSD,
A) those with personality disorders experience considerable subjective
B) multiple causal events can be identified when a personality disorder
C) personality disorders are found on Axis III.
D) personality disorders develop gradually.
68) The "clusters" of personality disorders found in the DSM-IV-TR are
grouped based on
A) similar etiologies.
B) symptom similarities.
C) level of dysfunction.
D) expected prognosis.
69) Which basic personality traits from the 5 factor model seem most im-
portant in the development of histrionic personality disorder?
A) high extraversion and high neuroticism
B) high conscientiousness and low assertiveness
C) low openness to feelings and high fantasy proneness
D) high neuroticism and low agreeableness
70) ________ personality disorder is much more common in men than
women and involves the exploitation of others without remorse.
71) Which of the following is most typical of the interpersonal attitudes and be-
haviors of someone with borderline personality disorder?
A) excessive trust and dependence on others’ opinions
B) cruel and callous exploitation of others for personal gainFinal Examination 15 Abnormal Psychology
C) vacillation between overidealization and bitter disappointment
D) repeated manipulation of others to gain attention
72) Which of the following statements is true about alcohol use?
A) Alcoholism is strongly associated with accidental death, but not with violent
B) Alcoholism is more common in women that in men.
C) Alcoholism increases the risk of suicide.
D) Alcoholism is extremely serious but rarely fatal.
73) Of the following, who is most likely to be an alcoholic?
A) a twenty-five-year-old divorced man who completed one year of junior college
B) a thirty-year-old college-educated man
C) a forty-two-year-old married woman who is a high-school drop out
D) a fifty-seven-year-old woman with a doctorate in anthropology
74) Which of the following is NOT a misconception about alcohol?
A) Mixing different types of alcohol makes people more drunk than the same
amount of a singe type.
B) Alcohol can interfere with sleep.
C) Alcohol is a stimulant.
D) Drinking coffee counteracts the effects of alcohol.
75) Problematic drinking behavior commonly develops during
A) the transition to middle age.
B) a period of great success in an individual’s life.
C) old age.
D) crisis periods in a marriage or other intimate personal relationship.
76) In contrast to other treatment programs, Alcoholics Anonymous
A) uses primarily psychodynamic interventions, although advocates of AA would
B) offers both group and one-on-one support.
C) is successful, but only with severe alcoholics who have "hit bottom."
D) has a low drop-out rate. 16 Final Examination Abnormal Psychology
77) Julia has a shoe fetish; she is not able to enjoy sex unless her partner is
wearing her shoes. She needs to be touching the shoes in order to achieve
sexual gratification. She becomes aroused by the sight of her own shoes.
What is unique about Julia’s case of shoe fetishism?
A) Partners are usually not involved.
B) Female fetishists are rare.
C) Most fetishes involve animate objects.
D) Sexual dysfunction usually is seen in the fetishist.
78) One’s sense of maleness or femaleness is called
A) gender role.
B) gender identity.
C) gender preference.
D) gender orientation.
79) Martin has always felt he was really a girl. He dressed in girl’s clothing as a
child and still wants to be a girl. He is sure a mistake was made and that he
is inhabiting the wrong sexed body. Martin’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of
A) gender identity disorder.
B) transvestic fetishism.
C) gender dysphoria.
80) Which of the following is an argument against the use of surgical sex reass-
ignment surgery for gender identity disorder?
A) Cognitive-behavioral therapy has been found to be effective for most in allevi-
ating gender dysphoria.
B) Surgery should not be used to treat a psychological disorder.
C) Gender identity disorder is not a lifelong disorder and later regret is likely.
D) Most of those who have such surgeries are not happy with the outcome.
A) is a disorder that involves involuntary spasms of the muscles of the vagina,
B) is a disorder of inability to achieve orgasm.
C) is a disorder involving genital pain associated with intercourse.
D) is a disorder of inhibited sexual desire. Final Examination 17 Abnormal Psychology
82) Neuroimaging studies of hallucinating patients suggest that auditory halluci-
A) activate the brain areas involved in speech comprehension.
B) may reflect a medical disorder in the brain.
C) are actually heard.
D) are usually drug induced.
83) The central feature of catatonic schizophrenia is
A) an extreme stressor precipitating the symptoms.
B) illogical or absurd delusions.
C) excited or stuporous motor symptoms.
D) blunted or inappropriate affect.
84) Ursula has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. If PET scans were done to
measure her brain’s activity, which area would probably be underactive?
A) the hypothalamus and pituitary
B) the frontal lobes
C) the deepest portions of the brain, the medulla and reticular activating system
D) the visual cortex
85) People with schizophrenia often show poor performance on tasks like the Wis-
consin Card Sorting Task, which is thought to indicate a dysfunction of the
A) frontal lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) temporal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
86) The first-generation antipsychotics seem to work because they block dop-
amine. This is supported by the new research findings that
A) changes in symptoms occur without any side effects.
B) changes in symptoms begin to occur very quickly after starting the
medications, not weeks later as previously thought.
C) changes in symptoms begin to occur weeks after starting to take the medica-
tions, rather than immediately.
D) patients’ report they feel better right away, although there isn’t any actual
clinical change occurring. 18 Final Examination Abnormal Psychology
87) What types of delusions are most commonly seen in Alzheimer’s Disease?
A) delusions of grandeur
B) delusions of bodily changes
C) delusions of persecution
D) delusions of a religious nature
88) Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Alzheimer’s Disease?
A) being a woman
B) having a family history of Parkinson’s Disease
C) being highly educated
D) living in a non-Western developed nation
89) Vascular dementia
A) affects more women than men.
B) is a result of many small strokes.
C) is what was once called amnestic infarct dementia.
D) responds to the same treatments as Alzheimer’s Disease.
90) The effects of head trauma on memory suggest that
A) rarely are episodic memories affected by head trauma.
B) semantic memory is usually affected when an injury is severe enough to pro-
duce a loss of consciousness.
C) the process of memory consolidation can be interrupted.
D) short-term memory is not affected by physical trauma.
91) Before the accident, Bob was unemployed and had few friends. Lionel, who
suffered comparable head trauma, was a successful businessman and had
just married. Which of these men should have the more favorable outcome
A) Bob, because his lack of responsibilities will permit him to focus on getting
B) Bob, because he will not be distracted by relationships.
C) Neither, because there is never a favorable outcome to head trauma.
D) Lionel, because he is more likely to be motivated to recover. Final Examination 19 Abnormal Psychology
92) What complicates the diagnosis of maladaptive behavior in childhood?
A) Drugs are not effective in treating the disorders that are most commonly seen
B) Most psychological disorders in the young have an identifiable biological and
C) The dividing line between childhood and adolescence has been arbitrarily
D) Behavior that is problematic for a child of one age can be normal behavior for
a child of a different age.
93) Currently, the cause of ADHD is believed to be
A) an allergic reaction to certain foods and food additives.
B) a combination of family pathology and poor peer modeling.
C) excessive sugar in the diet.
D) both biological and psychological factors.
94) What is the relationship between oppositional defiant disorder and conduct
A) Children who develop conduct disorder almost never had oppositional defiant
B) Every case of oppositional defiant disorder develops into conduct
disorder when the child goes into adolescence.
C) Before children develop oppositional defiant disorder, they have conduct
D) Virtually all children who develop conduct disorder have oppositional defiant
95) Childhood and adult depression differ in what way?
A) Adult depression does not remit without pharmacological intervention.
B) Altered eating habits are not seen in childhood depression.
C) Altered hormone levels are not seen in children.
D) Irritability is often seen as a major symptom in childhood depression.
96) Studies of the effectiveness of antidepressant medication with children have
A) a major drawback: children develop tolerance to the drugs and become psy-
chologically dependent on them.
B) shown that Prozac is extremely effective in producing long-term symptom
C) produced inconsistent results.
D) indicated that while these drugs have few side effects, neither do they have
any benefits. 20 Final Examination Abnormal Psychology
97) "Efforts that are aimed at influencing the general population" best describes
A) crisis interventions.
B) indicated interventions.
C) universal interventions.
D) selective interventions.
98) A major difference between social-learning programs and milieu therapy is
that social-learning programs
A) are always provided in mental hospitals.
B) expect patients to care for one another.
C) require each patient to be involved in groups that "govern" the ward.
D) target specific behaviors for reinforcement.
99) What is one of the best predictors of future violence?
A) family support
B) past history of violence
C) compliance with treatment
D) employment history
100) The Durham Rule
A) established that one was sane unless they did not know right from wrong.
B) focused on the cause of an unlawful act.
C) made the criteria for establishing insanity more objective.
D) is often referred to as the "substantial capacity test