1. Typically, medications used to treat what type of illnesses are in the top five most frequently reported
drugs in drug-related death cases?
b. anxiety and depression
c. alcohol psychosis
d. attention deficit disorder
2. According to the University of Michigan study in 2013, what percent of eighth graders found it “fairly
easy” or “very easy” to obtain alcohol beverages?
a. 38 percent
b. 44 percent
c. 56 percent
d. 89 percent
3. It is more common for drug-related deaths to be a result of what drug–taking behavior?
a. multiple-drug (polydrug)
b. overdose of a single drug
c. drug abuse
d. alcohol poisoning
4. The Monitoring the Future national survey is collected by which university?
a. University of Phoenix
b. Harvard University
c. University of Michigan
d. University of Nevada
5. The majority of chemical laboratories that produce “designer drugs” are located where?
a. North America
6. During the 1960s and 1970s, what area was the dominant source of heroin for the U.S.?
b. Golden Triangle of Southeast Asia
d. Bolivia and Peru
7. Two international surveys provide information on the question of drug-taking behavior around the
world. One is the European School Survey Project on Alcohol and Other Drugs and the other is the:
a. United States Statistical Data
b. World Statistics on Crime and Drugs
c. World Drug Report
d. National Crime Victim’s Survey
8. Hundreds of newly synthesized psychoactive drugs are produced on this continent.
b. North America
c. South America
9. Most of the marijuana from Mexico is smuggled by:
10. Domestic drug trafficking of marijuana has been complicated as a result of:
a. the lack of scent in newer types of marijuana
b. its reduction in use
c. its similarities to herbs
d. some states legalizing it in various amounts and for various reasons
11. Which statement is NOT true?
a. Shamans still exist in some areas of the world.
b. The decline of shamanism was due to the development of centralized religions in Egyptian and
c. Shamanism was eventually replaced by a more extreme form in certain parts of the world and then
died out completely.
d. Modern shamanic healing utilizes hallucination-producing plants.
12. What was the result of the Harrison Act of 1914?
a. Several other drugs (i.e., marijuana) were classified as narcotics.
b. Narcotics were used in excess for medical use.
c. The Federal Bureau of Narcotics was established.
d. both a and b
13. The agency responsible for enforcing prohibition was the:
a. Drug Enforcement Agency
b. Prohibition Bureau
c. Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms
d. Federal Bureau of Investigation
14. In response to the growing number of drug-dependent Americans, what President proposed a
federal law that would regulate misbranded and adulterated foods, drinks, and drugs?
a. William Mc Kinley
b. Theodore Roosevelt
c. Woodrow Wilson
d. Franklin D. Roosevelt
15. One of the most important drug laws passed in the 1980s was the Anti-Drug Abuse Act of 1988. This
legislation created a cabinet-level Director of National Drug Control Policy, often referred to in the
media by what nickname?
a. Drug King
b. Drug Czar
c. Drug Lord
d. Drug Emperador
16. The four principle routes through which drugs can be delivered into the body are all of the following
a. oral administration
17. The rate of elimination of a particular drug can be determined by an index called:
a. the elimination quarter–life
b. the elimination rate–life
c. the elimination declination life
d. the elimination half–life
18. The larger the quantity of a drug, the ________ the body tries to get rid of it.
19. Most of the absorption process is accomplished within how many minutes after ingestion?
a. between one and ten minutes
b. between two minutes and three minutes
c. between thirty and forty–five minutes
d. between five and thirty minutes after ingestion
20. What is the correct list of routes of administration for drugs?
a. oral, injection, inhalation, biotransformation
b. oral, injection, inhalation, absorption
c. oral, injection, amalgamation, inhalation
d. oral, injection, inhalation, immersion
21. Which single theory best represents our current understanding of why some people are more prone
to drug abuse than others?
a. Erich Goode’s distinct factor theory
b. anomie/strain theory
c. euphoria seeking theory
d. no single theories are accepted
22. A region of the brain considered to be responsible for the reinforcing effects of several drugs of
abuse is known as:
a. synaptic knobs
c. nucleus accumbens
23. Individuals motivated by the positive rewards of the drug experience are sometimes referred to as:
d. euphoria seekers
24. According to the sociologist Robert Merton, what are the five adaptations as they relate to cultural
goals through acceptable means?
a. conformity, ritualism, religion, family values, and rebellion
b. conformity, consistency, innovation, communication, and retreatism
c. conformity, innovation, ritualism, retreatism, and rebellion
d. acceptance, conformity, belonging, difficult, and rebellion
25. According to the labeling theory, when does primary deviance convert into secondary deviance?
a. when occasional users are labeled as “dope heads”
b. when user adopts secondary characteristics of the primary deviant tendencies
c. when user participates in general acts of social and sexual deviancy
d. when social bonding is consistent with the kind seen in cults
1. Which reason is not adduced in the text as contributing to the increase in incarceration rates of drug
a. intensified drug-law enforcement
b. additional prosecution penalties for drug activity related to organized crime groups
c. a wider range of criminal laws covering the sale and possession of illicit drugs
d. longer prison sentences for drug offenders
2. As rates of heroin abuse rise, what happens to the incidence of crimes against individuals?
3. What types of crimes are females more likely than males to commit?
a. crimes against property
b. crimes against the public order
c. crimes against drug laws
d. crimes against persons
4. “Interactional circumstances” is a U.S. Department of Justice term for the idea that:
a. the relationship between drug use and crime is an indirect one
b. there is a direct relationship between drug use and crime
c. circumstances cause drug use
d. drug use causes individuals to experience difficult interactions with others
5. The Bank Secrecy Act of 1970 requires financial institutions in the United States to report cash
transactions of __________ or more to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS). These institutions must
identify the depositors and the sources of the money.
a. $ 5,000
b. $ 7,000
c. $ 10,000
d. $ 25,000
6. What percent of the drug control budget is spent on domestic law enforcement, drug interdiction,
and international control programs?
7. The U.S. certification process lists countries that have been determined to be major illicit drug
producing and/or drug transit countries into how many categories?
8. Coast Guard ships can stop and board any maritime vessel operating within what mile radius of U.S.
9. What are two of the basic types of undercover buy operations?
a. (1) the busting loose and (2) busting open
b. (1) the sting and (2) the set up
c. (1) the buy-bust and (2) the buy-walk
d. (1) the down low and (2) bust and talk
10. In personam is a _________ forfeiture and in rem is a __________ forfeiture.
a. criminal, civil
b. civil, criminal
c. personal, business
d. private, public
11. In this phase, the defendant enters a guilty or not guilty plea.
12. Which type of drug accounts for the most drug-law violations?
d. other controlled substances
13. Proponents of mandatory minimums believed:
a. it cost billions of dollars
b. it filled prisons with minor offenders
c. it made judges’ jobs more difficult
d. it was an effective deterrent
14. Which of the following is not mentioned as a way prisoners are unique in regards to their treatment
a. dealing with anger and hostility
b. low self-esteem
c. guilt and shame
d. use and abuse
15. In this year, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that federal district court judges had broad discretion to
impose reasonable sentences even if federal guidelines were more stringent.
16. What are the natural components of opium usually categorized as?
a. synthetic opiates
b. opioid extracts
c. thebaine derivatives
d. variations of heroin
17. Morphine is roughly how many times stronger than raw opium?
18. Which statement is true about the Harrison Narcotic Act?
a. It required doctors to list the ingredients of drugs they were prescribing to patients.
b. It required doctors to register with the IRS the opiate drugs and cocaine they were prescribing to their
patients and pay a small fee for the right to prescribe such drugs.
c. It finally put opiates in the five schedules.
d. It prohibited doctors from prescribing unlimited amounts of opiate drugs to their patients, and put
severe restrictions on the prescriptions.
19. The leading supplier of white powder heroin to the U.S. in the late 1990s was:
a. Myanmar (formerly Burma)
c. Costa Rica
20. Which of the following statements is true about the medical uses of narcotics today?
a. The three main medical uses of narcotic drugs today are for the treatment of pain, acute diarrhea,
and cough suppression.
b. The three main medical of narcotic drugs today are for treatment of narcolepsy, heroin addiction, and
c. The three main medical uses of narcotic drugs today are for anesthesia for surgery, cocaine addiction,
and morphine maintenance.
d. The three main medical uses of narcotic drugs today are methadone maintenance, Hotchkins
Disease, and pain associated with drug withdrawals.
21. Who was an early champion of cocaine use?
a. Ernst von Fleischl-Marxow
b. Sigmund Freud
c. Ernest Jones
d. Martha Freud
22. What is the only legitimate medical use of cocaine?
a. bronchial dilator
c. treatment for congestive heart disease
d. local anesthetic
23. What is one adverse consequence from a cocaine “kindling” effect?
a. prolonged euphoria followed by depression
b. brain seizures
c. a degeneration of cells in the lungs
d. a feeling of extreme warmth
24. Which form of cocaine is typically injected?
a. cocaine hydrochloride
b. free-base cocaine
c. crack cocaine
d. coca-leaf powder
25. How long does withdrawal from amphetamines approximately take?
a. 2 to 6 hours
b. 3 to 6 days
c. 1 to 2 months
d. 6 to 16 weeks
1. What does the term “psychedelic” literally mean?
c. mind and food-oriented
2. LSD was accidentally discovered during research focusing on efforts to reduce what illness?
a. schizophrenic symptoms
b. the abuse potential of sleeping pills
c. bleeding in uterine muscle
d. symptoms of heroin withdrawal
3. How are LSD dosages typically expressed?
4. What is Synesthesia?
a. an intermingling of senses, particularly sight and hearing
b. exaggerated appearances of common objects
c. mood swings from mania to depression
d. the inability to feel pain
5. What does Hallucinogen Persisting Perception Disorder refer to?
a. LSD addiction
b. LSD overdose
c. “bad trips”
6. What is Dimethyltryptamine (DMT)?
a. a long-acting version of psilocybin
b. produces safer acute effects than LSD
c. is the only hallucinogen that must be injected
d. is a short-acting version of LSD
7. What is DMT’s source?
a. the resin of tree bark and nuts
c. the peyote cactus
8. Present-day marijuana contains approximately how much THC?
a. about half the THC as marijuana during the 1960s and 1970s
b. 1-2 percent THC
c. approximately 5-10 percent THC
d. in the neighborhood of 12 to 14 percent THC
9. During the 1920s, what were the “Tea pads?”
a. places where marijuana could be smoked
b. small containers where marijuana cigarettes could be kept fresh for later use
c. the residue from smoked reefers
d. packets of hashish
10. How long do the behavioral/psychological effects of marijuana last?
a. 30 to 60 minutes
b. 45 to 90 minutes
c. 1 to 2 hours
d. 2 to 3 hours
11. In which region has marijuana been linked to the highest rate of psychiatric problems?
a. United States
b. India and North Africa
12. Long-term marijuana smokers show cognitive impairment for up to ________ after marijuana
a. 10 days
b. 6 days
c. 5 days
d. 3 days
13. How much is the lethal dose/effective dose ratio roughly for marijuana?
c. 6 – 8 thousand
d. 20 to 40 thousand
14. Penalties for pharmicies violating the Anabolic Steroid Control Act law can result in how long of a
a. up to 1 year
b. up to 3 years
c. up to 5 years
d. minimum of 7 years
15. What are the two primary effects testosterone has on the human body?
a. androgenic; anabolic
b. androgenic; adrenocortical
c. adrenocortical; anabolic
d. anabolic; stanz
16. When did anabolic steroid use among collegiate athletes begin?
17. What is gynecomastia?
a. the enlargement of breasts
b. the development of female genitalia
c. the loss of facial hair
d. profound sterility
18. Robert took a combination of two anabolic steroid pills and an injectable form of another anabolic
steroid. What is this practice known as?
c. doubling up
19. Ordinary use of ibuprofen can produce false-positive results in what drug urinanalysis test?
d. most anabolic steroids
20. Barbiturates are a useful treatment for what ailment?
a. attention deficit disorder
c. scarlet fever
d. weight loss
21. What type of effect does the mixture of barbiturates with alcohol produce?
a. an antagonistic effect
b. an inhibitory effect
c. a synergistic effect
d. a tolerance effect
22. What is the primary reason for a large decrease in prescriptions of barbiturates?
a. barbiturates increase the risk of epileptic seizures
b. most medical insurance and HMOs do not pay for them
c. barbiturates have a high potential to be used to commit suicide
d. none of the above
23. Valium is an example of what kind of benzodiazepine?
24. Why did the FDA ban GHB from the legal market?
a. GHB-related seizures and comas
b. its hallucinogenic effects
c. its effects on blood pressure
d. its depressive effects on the respiratory system
25. “Huffing” is a term often used to describe:
a. inhaling the solvent from a handkerchief
b. breathing in from a plastic bag
c. increased breaths taken after ingesting the solvent
d. a feeling of breathlessness after the intoxication is worn off
1. The LD50/ED50 ratio for alcohol is approximately what amount?
2. Fermentation achieves an alcohol content of _________ percent.
a. between 5 and 10
b. between 12 and 16
c. between 16 and 18
d. between 18 and 20
3. Americans drink on a per capita basis approximately how many gallons of pure alcohol a year?
a. 7 to 9
b. 14 to 26
d. 4.3 to 6.8
4. Where is most of the consumed alcohol absorbed?
b. small intestine
d. large intestine
5. Craving for alcohol means that alcoholism has which of the following characteristic?
a. physical dependence
b. psychological dependence
c. a combination of physical and psychological dependence
d. a combination of occasional and spree drinking
6. Which areas of the brain are most affected by heavy drinking?
a. cerebral cortex and forebrain
b. forebrain and medulla
c. cerebellum and cerebral cortex
d. pons and thalamus
7. About what percent of U.S. adults are either alcohol abusers or alcohol dependent?
a. 4 percent
b. 8.5 percent
c. 10 percent
d. 15 percent
8. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (when confusion and disorientation occurs) arises from a deficiency in
a. vitamin B1 (thiamine)
c. oxygen to the brain
d. natural nutrients
9. Who was the first European to encounter tobacco plants?
a. Sir Walter Raleigh
b. Sir Francis Drake
c. King Philip II of Spain
d. Christopher Columbus
10. Who invented the first automated cigarette-making machine?
a. Rodrigo de Jerez
b. James B. Duke
c. Thomas Edison
d. James Bonsack
11. What year was the first Surgeon General’s Report on smoking and health issued?
12. Marty smokes unfiltered cigarettes, and Rita smokes filtered cigarettes. Rita is getting a higher
concentration of what ingredient?
d. carbon dioxide
13. What is the primary source of carcinogenic compounds in tobacco?
a. gaseous phase
b. carbon monoxide
14. Carbon monoxide is typically measured in what terms?
a. parts per million blood components (p.p.m.)
b. milligrams per cigarette (m.p.c.)
c. micrograms per inhalation (m.p.i.)
d. milligrams per kilogram of body weight (m.p.k.)
15. Each day, how many people in the United States die as a result of cigarette smoking?
16. The World Health Organization predicts that in the year 2030, how many people will die from
tobacco-related illnesses, if current trends continue?
a. about 1 million
b. 4.9 million
c. 6.5 million
d. more than 8 million
17. If efforts are made to prevent drug-taking behavior from occurring when it has not occurred up to
now, then these efforts are referred to as:
a. primary prevention
b. secondary prevention
c. tertiary prevention
d. all of the above
18. What is a type of intervention in which the goal is to forestall the onset of drug use by an individual
who has had little or no previous exposure to drugs?
a. primary prevention
b. secondary prevention
c. tertiary prevention
d. all of the above
19. A federal voucher program was established in 2003 to help address a priority of the White House
Office of National Drug Control Policy that is related to:
a. primary prevention
b. secondary prevention
c. tertiary prevention
d. fourth-level prevention
20. What is the philosophy of the supply/availability approach?
a. Increasing the drug supply will turn people off to drugs.
b. Making drugs hard to get will discourage drug-taking behavior.
c. Money spent on treatment is preferable to money spent on border drug interdiction.
d. all of the above 2
1. What was the purpose of raising the legal drinking age to twenty-one across all states?
a. reduce availability of drugs
b. impose punitive measures
c. impose scare tactics
d. impart information approach
22. Where was The Life Skills Training (LST) program originally developed for youngsters?
a. New York City
b. Kansas City
c. North Carolina
d. California and Oregon
23. According to the text, what is the best-known school based prevention program in the United
24. CASASTART’s target population consists of:
a. high school students with at least four risk factors
b. adults with at least two risk factors
c. kindergarten children with at least three risk factors
d. students age 8-13 with at least four risk factors
25. What are the five stages (in order) of change in drug rehabilitation?
a. contemplation, preparation, precontemplation, action, maintenance
b. maintenance, precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action
c. precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
d. preparation, precontemplation, contemplation, action, maintenance
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