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California Coast University


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1. Steven Cox and John Wade believe the U.S. justice systems constitute a criminal justice _________ because the components cooperate and share similar goals but operate independently. a. network b. model c. scheme d. none of the above 2. Much of the failure to deal effectively with crime in society may be attributed to ______. a. the hesitation of crime victims to report certain types of crimes b. the fragmentation of the justice process c. the system of corrections policies concerning parole d. all the above 3. The most complex and comprehensive approach to effecting planned change in the criminal justice field is in the process of developing a ______. a. plan b. policy c. position description d. none of the above 4. All of the following are steps involved in a force-field analysis, EXCEPT: a. evaluating forces b. identifying alternative strategies for changing each force c. analyzing the forces d. identifying driving forces 5. According to the textbook, people working in the private sector must achieve job satisfaction primarily through _______ rewards. a. extrinsic b. intrinsic c. management d. None of the above 6. _______ involve problem analysis, setting goals and objectives, program and policy design, developing an action plan, and monitoring and evaluation. a. Planned changes b. Planned outcomes c. Planned alternatives d. Planned contingencies 7. In building the organizational structure, which of the following principles would not be considered? a. principle of the objective b. principle of responsibility c. principle of span of control d. principle of less authority 8. _______ refers to the fact that organizations are composed of people who interact with one another and with people in other organizations. a. Open entity b. Working entity c. Social entity d. Closed entity 9. _______, who first emphasized time and motion studies, is known today as the father of scientific management. a. Max Weber b. Peter Drucker c. Ronald Lynch d. Frederick W. Taylor 10. ______ developed a hierarchy of needs. a. Abraham Maslow b. Peter Drucker c. Robert Blake d. Douglas McGregor 11. The idea of a pure bureaucracy was developed by _______, the “father of sociology.” a. Abraham Maslow b. Jane Mouton c. Max Weber d. Douglas McGregor 12. The tendency for organizations to promulgate written rules, policies, and procedures has been caused by three contemporary developments that include all EXCEPT: a. administrative due process b. civil liability c. rights to flexible hours d. accreditation movement 13. In the use of testing to determine suitability for employment, the critical question for such tests is whether the test is ______. a. valid b. geared for younger candidates c. geared for more experienced candidates d. designed to eliminate candidates with lower IQs 14. The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) was enacted in 1938 to establish minimum wages and to require overtime compensation ______. a. in the public sector b. in the private sector c. in special circumstances related to war d. both a and b 15. The FLSA’s overtime provisions apply to all the following persons employed in a police agency EXCEPT: a. a rookie patrol officer b. a corporal who is a K-9 officer c. an entry-level record clerk d. a newly promoted sergeant 16. Generally, police administrators have the constitutional authority to regulate employees’ off-duty associational activities for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a. a general consensus of dislike of the officer by other officers b. sexual conduct that involves a supervisory/subordinate relationship c. involvement with associations that adversely impact employees’ ability to do their jobs d. associations that impair the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization 17. Legislation known as the Peace Officers’ Bill of Rights mandates due process rights for peace officers who are the subject of internal investigations that could lead to disciplinary action. Provided that the officer has complied with the investigation, ______ must be afforded to the accused officer. a. written notice of the nature of the investigation b. the right of the officer to have an attorney or a representative of his/her choice c. a mandatory polygraph paid for by the employing department d. both a and b 18. _______ of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) makes it illegal to discriminate against persons with disabilities. a. Title II b. Title I c. Title IV d. Title VII 19. Which of the following is a law enforcement organizational structural differentiation? a. centralization b. administrative intensity c. formalization d. vertical 20. The patrol function is often called the ________ of policing and is the primary line element. a. non-essential element b. departmental optional division c. sole function d. backbone 21. Critics of the military style of policing do not support the model’s tradition because ______. a. it is autocratic b. of the use of strict discipline c. of the respect for chain of command d. the “elite warrior” self-image is a positive 22. Rules and regulations are ______. a. specific managerial guidelines that leave little or no latitude for individual discretion b. general suggestions open to interpretation c. specific guidelines that serve to direct employee actions d. written guidelines that are general in nature 23. The S.A.R.A. process provides officers with a logical, step-by-step framework in which to do all of the following EXCEPT: a. identify b. analyze c. dismiss d. evaluate 24. Recent “smart policing” initiatives since the late 2000s have included ______. a. distinct problem-oriented policing approaches b. local police being directed to return to school for college credits c. centralization of police departments for ease of command d. local political control 25. Intelligence-led policing operates under the assumption that a relatively _______ number of people are responsible for a comparatively ______ percentage of crimes. a. large; small b. large; large c. small; large d. small; small 1. Which one of the following duties is not an interpersonal role of a CEO? a. leadership b. figurehead c. spokesperson d. liaison 2. Duties that include monitoring/inspecting and spokesperson functions are ______. a. part of the liaison role b. part of the spokesperson role c. part of the negotiating role d. part of the informational role 3. Which method has been developed to obtain the most capable people for executive positions? a. “Johad Window” b. assessment center c. situational question/answer d. managerial grid 4. According to the author’s discussion of Machiavelli, if the chief was promoted up the ranks and “inherited the kingdom” in a rather easy uncontested fashion, Machiavelli would likely advise the leader to ______. a. change the department to suit his or her style b. avoid stupid mistakes c. fire those in the department he or she does not like d. all the above 5. Some of the most important tasks performed by police captains are all of the following, EXCEPT: a. reviewing the final disposition of assignments b. reviewing and approving overtime in the section/unit c. monitoring section/unit operations to evaluate performance d. holding the roll 6. A new approach to training new officers, as well as an alternative to FTO, is the ______. a. police training officer program, or PTO. b. skills and tactical training, or SAT. c. knowledge, skills, and abilities testing, or KSAs. d. first-line advancement trainings, or FATS. 7. The assessment center method might include all but which of the following? a. psychological tests b. management tasks c. physical strength and agility tests d. role-playing exercises 8. It is the responsibility of command personnel and supervisors to ensure that officers thoroughly understand and comply with pursuit policies. Factors to be considered by the courts in evaluating pursuit liability include the following, EXCEPT: a. the use of police warning devices b. the number of hours previously worked by the officer in pursuit c. the reason for the pursuit d. demonstrations of due regard in officers’ actions 9. Many police executives and researchers are uncomfortable with the more simplistic, sequential depiction of the traditional use-of-force continuum models. The newest trend many police executives tend to support is the _______ model. a. staircase b. wheel c. linear d. dynamic 10. The military may be called on to provide personnel and equipment for certain special support activities such as ______. a. domestic terrorist events b. routine traffic control c. where the hot spots are detected by crime analysis d. domestic violence cases 11. According to the research cited in the textbook, women represent only about ________ of the police chiefs in the United States. a. 5% b. 7% c. 1% d. 2% 12. Chiefs need to take a long-term view and look at ________ as a continuous process that changes organizational culture. a. the outsourcing of personnel to other countries b. the lack of online distance education opportunities c. succession planning and leadership development d. none of the above 13. ________ policing is where a (usually smaller) community contracts with an outside unit of government to provide its policing services. a. Consolidated b. Community c. Contract d. Public 14. It is the responsibility of the judicial branch to _______. a. determine what the law is, and to provide a forum for resolving disputes b. adjudicate problems as slowly and meticulously as possible c. ensure the other branches of government are deferential d. reward those who consistently file litigation 15. Nowhere is the policymaking role of state supreme courts more apparent than in deciding ______. a. death penalty cases b. civil lawsuits against the state c. which political party will control the state’s budget d. each year’s political boundaries of the state Administration 16. Trial courts are courts of _______ . a. civil b. original c. criminal d. administrative 17. The United States Supreme Court has made dramatic decisions in all but which of the following areas? a. race relations b. overhauling juvenile courts c. legalizing abortion d. elections of judges 18. Which of the following is not one of the four cultural orientations that were found to shape the conduct and performance of the nation’s state trial courts? a. communal b. hierarchical c. networked d. dependency 19. Hierarchical courts emphasize ________ rules. Judges are committed to the use of ________ management. a. dominant; independent b. clear; case flow c. developing; group d. flexible; close 20. Canon 3B(4) requires judges to be: a. patient b. dignified c. courteous d. all of the above 21. Federal judges have the ________ of the United States Courts to coordinate and administer their operations. a. Court Association b. Federal Assistance c. Administrative Office d. State Judiciary 22. A basic flaw with using a presiding judge to administer a court is that he or she is actually ________. a. “first among equals” with peers b. a non-lawyer c. a new judge d. a new law school graduate 23. A full-time institution in the United States that provides judicial training for state judges is the ________, located in ________. a. Court of Training; Las Vegas b. Training Courts Institute; New York c. National Judicial College; Reno d. Judicial Institute; Chicago 24. Today’s court administrators perform all but which of the following duties? a. training for staff b. polling the jury c. preparation of court budgets d. managing equipment 25. Which of the following is NOT a consideration judges should take into account when deciding whether or not to join a social network? a. “Could participation lead to judicial disqualification in matters pending in his/her court?” b. “Will participation jeopardize his/her independence or integrity?” c. “Will participation compromise or inhibit his/her electoral future?” d. “Could participation lead to judicial disqualification in matters pending in his/her court?” 1. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps of a good threat assessment? a. identifying the threat b. making the threat c. investigating the threat d. managing the threat 2. Quality of life crimes include all of the following EXCEPT: a. prostitution b. shoplifting c. low level drug possession d. murder 3. Case delay in the courts is generally considered to be bad because: a. it denies defendants their right to a speedy trial b. it may result in a loss or deterioration of evidence c. it may bring about a loss of public confidence in the court system d. all of the above 4. Under the Speedy Trial Act, how many days are allowed to pass from indictment to the trial? a. 20 b. 50 c. 30 d. 70 5. Which of the following is NOT a typical problem when dealing with the master calendar system? a. The distribution of work can be quite uneven. B. The administrative burden on the chief judge is often great. c. A significant backlog of cases may develop. d. Judges are more vulnerable to attempted bribes 6. Which of the following is NOT a problem the “CSI effect” could lead to? a. longer trials b. increased use of expert witnesses c. need for more attorneys d. unrealistic expectations held by jurors that are influenced by those shows 7. Veteran’s courts can create all but which of the following? a. better access to housing b. decreased educational opportunities c. better access to employment d. an avoidance of the pains of prison and a criminal record 8. The “Administrative Maximum” prison, or ADX, located in Florence, Colorado, is ______. a. the only federal supermax in the country b. the only supermax prison facility in the nation c. being closed down, as supermax institutions have been found to be cruel and unusual d. less costly to operate than any known non-supermax institution 9. Cooper v. Pate was one of the earliest prison cases and is significant because in it, the Supreme Court first recognized ______. a. the right of prison wardens to dictate their own level of discipline over inmates b. the right of prison wardens to use trustees as correctional staff members c. the use of Title 42 United States Code Section 1983 as a legal remedy for inmates d. the use of quid pro warranto petitions by inmates 10. As with the police, there are several benefits to be realized for corrections agencies wishing to become accredited; they include all but which of the following? a. Determining the facility’s or program’s strengths and weaknesses. b. Identifying obtainable goals and implementing state-of-the-art policies and procedures. c. Establishing specific guidelines for daily operations. d. Cost savings with respect to staff salaries. 11. What division of a state’s central office oversees budget development and new prison construction? a. correctional programs division b. construction division c. legislative budget division d. administrative division 12. The Prison Litigation Reform Act was enacted in an attempt to ______. a. ensure better legal representation for inmates b. decrease frivolous lawsuits brought by inmates c. grant more parole opportunities to inmates d. increase the civil rights of inmates 13. According to the text, each of the following is considered among the worst prisons in the world EXCEPT: a. La Sant, France b. North Korea Gulag c. Camp 1391, Israel d. Guantanamo Bay, Cuba 14. After an inmate receives _________ strikes, he or she cannot file another lawsuit in forma pauperis. a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3 15. Which of the following is NOT one of Souryal’s recommended anticorruption measures? a. upgrade the quality of correctional personnel b. establish quality-based supervisory techniques c. loosen fiscal controls d. emphasize true ethical training 16. Which of the following is considered a “serious” infraction by a correctional officer (CO) or inmate? a. giving candy to an inmate b. inmates giving a CO a soda c. a love affair between an inmate and CO d. a CO allowing an inmate to remain in-cell 17. A _________ policy is one in which sheriff’s offices require recruits to first work in the jail before they can become eligible for patrol duties. a. “work up” b. “bars before cars” c. “jail first” d. “turntable” 18. Which of the following is NOT one of DiIulio’s principles of good prison leadership? a. Leaders following the “management by walking around” principle. b. Leaders remaining in office long enough to modify the internal operations and external relations. c. Issuing at least one disciplinary slip per officer per year. d. Leaders following the “management by walking around” principle and remaining in office long enough to modify the internal operations and external relations. 19. The most difficult position to hold in all of corrections is probably that of ______. a. corrections officer b. warden c. director of state penal system d. parole officer 20. Which of the following did Wolff and Shi find to be a prevalent characteristic of sexual assault? a. having mental health problems b. being a repeat offender c. being caucasian d. being younger than 30 21. Which of the following is a staffing level that can be developed for hostage taking incidents in corrections? a. traditional crisis response teams (crts) b. armed crisis response teams c. tactical teams d. all of the above 22. Returning detention facilities back to normal operations at the conclusion of a disturbance is a major priority and the administration must also consider: a. searching for contraband, securing inmates, assessing damages, counting inmates, providing medical care to hostages and inmates, and collecting evidence for future prosecutions b. providing continued support and counseling to staff in coping with their experiences c. undertaking a thorough investigation of the causes of the crisis d. any damages, renovations, repairs, and remodeling that needs to be addressed and control of the inmates while these are attended to 23. Fifteen states define an “older prisoner” as: a. 50 and older b. 55 and older c. 60 and older d. 70 and older 24. Robert Levinson delineated four categories for classification of new inmates, which include all EXCEPT: a. security and custody b. housing and programs c. dangerous and less-dangerous d. security and custody, and housing and programs 25. Which of the following is not a reason why more people are going to prison and staying there longer? a. truth-in-sentencing laws b. three-strikes legislation c. tougher war on drug policies d. plea bargaining 1. How an individual views a controversial issue depends on their ________, character, and values. a. ethics b. personality c. job d. social status 2. The police culture often exalts _______ over integrity. a. ethics b. morals c. loyalty d. arrests 3. The quality of judges determines the _______ of justice. a. swiftness b. quality c. need d. care 4. All but which of the following are examples of confidential employees in the courts? a. bailiffs b. court reporters c. law clerks d. security screeners 5. The obligation of a deputy sheriff to be loyal to his or her sheriff is an example of _________ loyalty. a. selective b. personal c. integrated d. institutional 6. Because of the expectation of loyalty to their supervisors, in extreme cases, practitioners may find themselves ______. a. lying under oath b. supporting cover-ups c. justifying untruths d. all of the above 7. Violations of policy by criminal justice employees may involve a broad range of issues such as: a. substance abuse b. insubordination c. lack of punctuality d. all of the above 8. A system of early detection regarding problems with personnel is known as ______. a. early intervention b. early warning system c. early detection d. officer watch 9. The doctrine of respondeat superior means ______. a. the police should respond immediately to every call for service b. “very important” c. “let the master answer” d. a personal response to a crime victim’s call is superior to a telephone response 10. Proximate cause is established by asking ______. a. “ignorantia juris neminem excusat?” b. a suspect to write out a statement of his involvement in a crime c. an officer to tell whether he caused a suspect to confess d. “But for the officer’s conduct, would the plaintiff have sustained the injury or damage?” 11. Jail administrators ______. a. protect inmates from harm b. render medical assistance to inmates when necessary c. treat inmates humanely d. all of the above Unit 4 Examination 189 BCJ 515 Criminal Justice Administration 12. Which of the following is a minimum due process requirement for discharging public employees? a. opportunity to cross-examine superiors b. automatic right to appeal the decision to a federal district court c. opportunity to present acquaintances to assist d. all of the above 13. The budget is all but which of the following? a. a purview of chief executives only b. a management tool c. a process d. a political instrument 14. Which of the following is NOT an area of budgeting accountability where audits are concerned? a. financial b. program c. management d. projection 15. Which of the following is a method used by police agencies to survive fiscal cutbacks? a. reduced investigative follow-ups b. increase the use of online reporting c. no longer responding to all motor vehicle thefts d. all of the above 16. According to Certo, the major pitfalls of budgets include all but which of the following? a. Ignoring the need to change budgets periodically. b. Increasing expenses each year without justification. c. The manager’s trying to execute the budget unilaterally, without assistance from the governing board. d. Placing too much emphasis on relatively insignificant organizational expenses. 17. The key characteristic of a performance budget is that it ______. a. is cheap to develop b. is cheap to implement c. relates volume of work to money spent d. is easy to operate 18. One way to view the use of large amounts of data as it is applied to law enforcement is to consider the ________ (N-DEx). a. Law Enforcement Central Information Center b. Federal Information Clearinghouse c. State Collaboration of Information Exchange d. Law Enforcement National Data Exchange 19. _________ computing is basically the use of a network of remote servers hosted on the Internet to store, manage, and process data, rather than a local server or a personal computer. a. Atmosphere b. Cloud c. Stratosphere d. Astro 20. Patrol vehicles in the Greenwich, Connecticut, Police Department can scan up to _________ license plates per minute on all vehicles they pass. a. 2,600 b. 4,200 c. 3,600 d. 5,300 21. It is predicted that _______ flying robots will be in the skies by 2020, and that number will ________ by 2030. a. 10,000; double b. 15,000; double c. 20,000; triple d. 30,000; double 22. Some police agencies have begun using __________ to determine such details as vehicle location and damage, elevation, radii of curves, and critical speed. a. accident scene systems b. car accident investigation systems c. central positioning systems d. global positioning systems 23. The following are advantages to electronic filing of court documents, EXCEPT: a. the saving of physical space b. increased miles of driving to the courthouse c. speed and ease of access to documents d. time savings for data entry 24. All of the following has been cited as a positive uses of mini tablets by prison inmates, EXCEPT: a. it allows inmates to plot escapes b. it allows inmates to keep up with technological advances c. it allows inmates to better connect with family and friends on the outside d. it allows for inmates to establish positive ties to their communities 25. 3D printing technology can ________. a. create firearms that use digital blueprints b. allow amateurs and virtually anyone with access to a printer to make guns c. produce a weapon that can be fired d. all the above
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