GED 108 Environmental Science Units 3 and 4

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50 multiple choice questions and 2 essay questions that must be 350-500 words each with proper ASA citing.

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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet) 1) One at a time, you test how quickly each of the following substances will settle out of water. To measure this property, you separately test each of the following by placing 100 grams of the substance and 500 milliliters of water into a 1 liter jar and screw on the lid tightly. Then you shake the jar violently for 1 minute and set the jar down. Which one of the following would settle the fastest, creating the clearest water in the fastest amount of time? A) gravel B) clay C) silt D) sand 2) A soil is found to have 40% sand, 40% silt, and 20% clay. This soil would be referred to as: A) silty B) sandy C) clayey D) loamy 3) Soils with the greatest water-holding capacity tend to have: A) poor aeration and lowest workability B) poor nutrient-holding capacity and good workability C) good water infiltration and workability D) good aeration and poor workability 4) Which one of the following soil horizons is least likely to be interacting directly with living organisms? A) A horizon B) O horizon C) E horizon D) C horizon 5) Detritus feeders and decomposers are most likely found in the: A) E and B horizon B) A and O horizon C) B and C horizon D) C and E horizon 6) Severe wildfires followed by heavy rains have significantly eroded the soil of a formerly forested region. Which one of the following horizons is most likely intact with little disturbance? A) A horizon B) O horizon C) E horizon D) C horizon 7) Compared to inorganic fertilizers, organic fertilizers such as A) cow manure applied to a field increase the chances of nutrient leaching. B) cow manure applied to a field reduce the chances of nutrient leaching. C) liquid ammonia sprayed on a field decrease the chances of nutrient leaching. D) liquid ammonia sprayed on a field increase the formation of humus. 8) The future worldwide use of irrigation: A) is expected to double in the next 20 years due to increasing demands for food B) is limited by the availability of freshwater, waterlogging, and salinization of soils C) depends on new technologies to extract more groundwater D) will require increased reliance on new hydrogen technologies to produce freshwater 9) The development of new varieties of grain crops increased productivity by increasing the: A) surface area of the leaves of the plants B) size of the roots and ability to absorb water C) strength of the stems to support more grains D) size and number of seeds 10) In the last 50 years, the greatest progress in addressing worldwide hunger and malnutrition came from the: A) use of better transportation methods to export grain more efficiently B) development and use of new varieties of high-yielding wheat and rice C) reduced reliance on pesticides, herbicides, and chemical fertilizers D) widespread use of sustainable irrigation methods 11) Although the Green Revolution has greatly reduced world hunger and malnutrition, it has: A) doubled the amount of land used to raise crops B) not significantly increased the productivity of modern agriculture C) required high levels of increasingly expensive fertilizer and pesticides D) contributed significantly to the destruction of the ozone layer 12) The Hubbert peak accurately predicted A) maximum U.S. oil consumption in 1972. B) maximum U.S. oil consumption continuing to climb through today. C) maximum U.S. oil production about 1995. D) maximum U.S. oil production about 1970. 13) Although considerable variation exists around the world, globally, the percent of fossil fuels that are used for the primary energy supply is more than: A) 85% B) 60% C) 50% D) 35% 14) The most cleanly burning fossil fuel available that produces the least pollutants is: A) coal, usually found in deposits deep within the Earth B) kerosene, found in deposits associated with oil wells C) natural gas, usually found in deposits associated with oil D) nuclear energy, produced from rocks and minerals within the Earth 15) More oil can be expected from a P50 of a 100 million barrel field than from an oil field with a: A) P70 for a 100 million barrel field. B) P10 for a 150 million barrel field. C) P40 for a 200 million barrel field. D) P95 for a 90 million barrel field. 16) Because of the challenges associated with removing oil from the ground: A) the first oil removed from a well is the most expensive to extract. B) enhanced recovery of oil is more expensive than secondary recovery. C) primary recovery of oil is more expensive than secondary recovery. D) only about 60% of the oil in a well can be removed by just pumping. 17) Radiation exposure immediately around a properly functioning nuclear power plant is about A) less than 1% of natural background exposure. B) double normal environmental background exposure. C) 10 times higher than normal environmental background exposure. D) 100 times higher than normal environmental background exposure. 18) Which of the following statements is true? A) Fission begins with one reactant and yields two atomic products and a release of energy. B) Fission begins with two reactants and yields one atomic product and a release of energy. C) Fusion combines three reactants and yields one atomic product and a release of energy. D) Fusion begins with one reactant and yields two atomic products and a release of energy. 19) Carbon-12 and carbon-14 are isotopes of carbon. These isotopes differ in the number of: A) protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) protons, neutrons, or electrons 20) Nuclear bombs rely upon: A) a domino effect that causes the nuclear fission of uranium-235 in less than a second B) a domino effect that causes the nuclear fusion of uranium-235 in less than a second C) an instantaneous fission of uranium-235 under extreme pressures D) an instantaneous fusion of uranium-235 under extreme pressures 21) Enrichment of nuclear fuel: A) increases the relative concentration of uranium-235 to only 3-5% to avoid any possibility of nuclear explosion at higher percentages B) increases the relative concentration of uranium-235 to 30-50% to avoid a nuclear explosion at higher percentages C) decreases the relative concentration of uranium-235 from 60% to only 3-5% to avoid a nuclear explosion at higher percentages D) decreases the relative concentration of uranium-235 from 100% to 30-50% to avoid a nuclear explosion at higher percentages 22) The actual fission reactions that release energy in a nuclear power plant are about: A) two-thirds from uranium-235 and one-third from B) one-third from uranium-235 and two-thirds from C) two-thirds from uranium-235 and one-third from D) one-third from uranium-235 and two-thirds from uranium-239 uranium-239 plutonium-239 plutonium-239 23) A self-amplifying reaction and a nuclear explosion in a nuclear power plant are prevented in large part by: A) the regular addition of uranium-239 to the fuel B) control rods that absorb extra neutrons C) the production of plutonium-239 D) fuel rods that absorb tremendous amounts of heat 24) Compared to a nuclear plant, a coal-fired plant: A) releases more than 100 times more radioactivity because of radioactive elements in coal. B) requires much less mining and results in fewer mining deaths. C) contributes to acid rain, and a nuclear plant does not. D) emits much less carbon dioxide. 25) Radioactive wastes consist of: A) the direct products of fission. B) the indirect products of fission. C) the direct and indirect products of fusion. D) the direct and indirect products of fission. Writing Assignment • • Begin each writing assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by the actual question itself (in bold type). Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e., an introduction, middle paragraphs and conclusion). • - 500 words or 1 - 2 pages. 350 Please answer ONE of the following: 1. What is meant by desertification? Describe how the process of erosion leads to a loss of water-holding capacity and, hence, to desertification. 2. What are drylands? Where are they found and how important are they for human habitation and agriculture? 3. What are radioactive emissions and how are most humans exposed to them? Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet) 1) About how much of the sun’s radiation would strike the Earth if the Earth did not have its atmosphere? A) about 10 times more B) about twice as much C) it would be about the same D) about half as much 2) With all of the sun’s energy striking the Earth every second of every day, why doesn’t the Earth overheat and kill us all? A) The Earth is so large and dense that it absorbs all of this heat. B) The Earth is overheating regionally, melting rocks into the lava of volcanoes. C) The Earth maintains a balance by radiating this heat back into space. D) The atmosphere of the Earth prevents the solar radiation from reaching the Earth’s surface. 3) New buildings that receive the energy star rating are recognized for: A) using solar or geothermal for at least 30% of the building’s energy needs. B) using solar power for at least 50% of the building’s energy needs. C) using wind power for at least 20% of the building’s energy needs. D) using 40% less energy than other buildings in their class. 4) Photovoltaic cells are commonly used to power: A) calculators. B) lighthouses. C) lawn mowers. D) industrial manufacturing. 5) Solar trough technology converts A) the ultraviolet light in sunlight directly into electricity. B) the heat of the sun into steam to drive a turbogenerator. C) sunlight into electricity which then produces steam heat. D) the direct current generated by photovoltaic cells into alternating current. 6) As sun shines on its leaves, a bean plant uses the light in photosynthesis to make beans. This entire process represents, in this sequence, the: A) generation, collection, and conversion of energy B) storage of energy, collection, and conversion C) conversion, collection, and storage of energy D) collection, conversion, and storage of energy 7) Which one of the following does not represent indirect solar energy? A) nuclear fission B) dams C) firewood D) windmills 8) In passive solar units that heat water, the water moves because: A) flat-plate collectors are facing the sun B) heated water rises up from low-positioned flat-plate collectors to the water tank C) wind-powered pumps move the water through the system D) an electric water pump moves the water through the system 9) Risk in environmental health is most related to: A) hazards B) vulnerability C) hazards multiplied by vulnerability D) hazards or vulnerability 10) Hazard is anything that can cause any of the following EXCEPT: A) injury or death to humans B) probability of suffering C) damage to personal or public property D) deterioration or destruction of environmental components 11) The ratio of weight in kilograms divided by the square of height in meters is the: A) body mass index. B) body height matrix. C) morbidity rate. D) none of the above 12) The Centers for Disease Control employs many people who study epidemiology. These people might be interested in: A) identifying new types of infectious disease B) the prevention of infectious disease C) the worldwide distribution of infectious disease D) identifying, tracking the spread of, and preventing infectious disease 13) What has overtaken tuberculosis as the disease that causes the most adult deaths worldwide? A) Malaria B) Measles C) Syphilis D) AIDS 14) The WHO has stated that is the world’s biggest killer. A) obesity B) poverty C) high cholesterol D) high blood pressure 15) Over the past 50 years, global life expectancy has: A) decreased by about 5 years, due primarily to increases in viral infections B) stayed about the same, due to new diseases spread by global climate change C) risen about 5 years due to the development of many poor nations D) risen more than 20 years due to better health care and nutrition worldwide 16) Risk management involves: A) a thorough review of the information available pertaining to the hazard in question and the risk characterization of that hazard. B) a decision to as to whether the weight of the evidence justifies a regulatory action. C) none of the above D) both A and B. 17) Which of the following is a good example of a cultural hazard to public health? A) During an earthquake in Japan, people are killed by falling pieces of a building. B) Air pollution near an oil refinery releases known carcinogens into the air. C) People living in southern Africa face some of the highest risks of developing tuberculosis. D) Eating a high-fat diet and engaging in little exercise, a man increasingly becomes obese. 18) The thinning of the troposphere away from the equator is primarily a result of: A) land masses moving towards the poles B) shifting of the continental plates due to plate tectonics C) differences in solar energy striking the Earth D) the number of clouds in the mesosphere and thermosphere 19) In a Hadley cell: A) warm air rises and cool air falls B) cool air rises and warm air falls C) warm water rises and cool water falls D) cool water rises and warm water falls 20) are alternative chemical configurations of a given compound. A) Mitigations B) Adaptations C) Convections D) Isotopes 21) The third-most important GHG is: A) water vapor. B) nitrous oxide. C) methane. D) chlorofluorocarbons. 22) Examining your flight plans for a trip from Atlanta, Georgia, to Seattle, Washington, and back, you notice that the total time in the air for the flight to Seattle is much longer than the flight back to Atlanta. Then it occurs to you that this is probably because of the impact of: A) the jet stream B) several weather fronts along the way C) the mixing of the troposphere and stratosphere D) changes in time zones as you fly between the east and the west 23) The effect of the 2008 recession has A) speeded up the flight from inner cities to suburbs. B) made existing properties more valuable. C) greatly slowed the suburban building boom and the purchase of new houses. D) reversed the movement to suburbs, increasing the pressure to find housing in the inner city. 24) Over the past 60 years, as people moved from U.S. cities to suburbs, the people that were left behind in the cities were primarily A) older, poor people representing ethnic minorities. B) younger, wealthy people representing ethnic minorities. C) older and wealthy Caucasians. D) younger Caucasians. 25) ranges from supporting and voting for particular candidates to expressing your support for particular legislation through letters or phone calls. A) Lifestyle choices B) Membership in nongovernmental organizations C) Political involvement D) None of the above Writing Assignment • • Begin each writing assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by the actual question itself (in bold type). Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e., an introduction, middle paragraphs and conclusion). • - 500 words or 1 - 2 pages. 350 Please answer ONE of the following: 1. Describe the public health roles of the CDC and the WHO. 2. What are the four categories of human environmental hazards? Give examples of each. 3. What is meant by “economic exclusion”? How is it related to the problems of crime and poverty in cities? ...
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