GRM597 Rev. 05/2019 Unit Exam 1 Exam ID: 5079aa51-c3e9-405f-bb00-52c133a23e6a 1. How would you define the Internet? a. network of networks b. collection of computers c. communication computer program. d. e-mail from one location to another 2. Why is a null hypothesis said to be implied? a. It’s always directly tested. b. It’s never directly tested. c. You do not need to test it to know that it is false. d. It is stated in a question form. 3. What is another term for basic research? a. real research b. pure research c. applied research d. baseline research 4. There will be no relationship between children’s time in day care and later academic achievement. This is an example of which of the following? a. a research hypothesis b. a factorial design c. a correlational hypothesis d. a null hypothesis 5. What does generalizability refers to? a. results that may be applied to different populations in different settings b. results that apply only to the sample studied 1 c. convenience sampling d. using a table of random numbers 6. Jacob is interested to see if there is a relationship between student absentee rate and national test scores. Which would be the appropriate research method to use? a. historical b. correlational c. descriptive d. longitudinal 7. What should be done if a treatment is suspected to have adverse effects? a. Stop the research with the sample. b. Use a small well-informed sample. c. Find a possible treatment for participants. d. Expand the sample size to another group. 8. Which of the following is a general source? a. Lexis/Nexis Academic b. Journal of Learning Disabilities c. PscyhAbstracts d. Encyclopedia of Psychology 9. What is one step a researcher can take to ensure that ethical principles are maintained? a. a computer simulation in which data are constructed and subjected to the effects of various treatments b. When the treatment is deemed harmful, try to locate a population that has already been exposed to the treatment. c. If the treatment involves risk, be absolutely sure that the risks are clear to the participants and other parties. d. all of the above 10. What is the most common use of the Internet? a. direct research b. V c. e-mail 2 d. advertisements through home pages 11. Which question is NOT used to judge a research study? a. Hypothesis: Can the hypothesis be tested? b. Review of Previous Research: Is the literature review recent? c. Method: Is it clear how the study was conducted? d. Outline: Did the researcher use an outline for the literature review? 12. Which of the following is true of the scientific method of inquiry? a. complete once the hypothesis has been tested b. will vary depending on the specific research question c. systematic process that is used to answer questions d. different in basic research than in applied research 13. What does the ethical principle of “sharing benefits” mean? a. all participants in the same study should receive an equal share of the benefits or subject payments b. all those who belong to the population being studied will share equally from the benefits the study produces c. the results of studies must be shared with the public so society may benefit from the increased knowledge d. all groups involved in a study should eventually be given an opportunity to receive any treatments that were found to be effective in the study 14. Which source should NOT be cited in a formal literature review? a. Newsweek b. Review of Educational Research c. Handbook of Child Psychology d. Journal of Educational Finance 15. Why is it important to choose a representative sample of the population? a. increase statistical precision b. determine group differences c. maximize generalizability of results d. find significant results 3 16. Hannah assigns children to different teaching method groups and tests their math performance after six weeks. This is an example of what type of research? a. descriptive b. historical c. experimental d. uncontrolled 17. The best dependent variable is defined by which of the following characteristics? a. independent of any other variable in the same study b. sensitive to changes in the treatment c. can be manipulated by the researcher d. interacts with the independent variable 18. What is another name for research that occurs “post hoc”? a. experimental b. correlational c. quasi-experimental d. historical 19. When is a stratified sample an appropriate sampling technique? a. specific characteristics of the population are of no concern b. individuals in a population are not equal c. each member must have an equal chance of being selected d. you have a small population 20. Which of the following best describes independent variables? a. not manipulated by the experimenter b. manipulated to assess the effect of the treatment c. unrelated to the treatment d. not necessary 21. What is a place where information can be posted and shared among Internet users called? a. electronic newsgroup 4 b. e-mail c. browser d. search engine 22. What is the major difference between applied and basic research? a. basic research takes longer to complete b. applied research is less important c. basic research is more traditional d. basic research has no immediate application 23. What is the purpose of a table of random numbers? a. determine the number of subjects in a study b. decide what statistical test to use c. randomly assign people to groups d. number items on a questionnaire 24. Nonexperimental research methods consist of which of the following? a. test causal relationships between variables b. only describe characteristics of existing phenomenon c. can be descriptive, historical, or correlational d. examine factors that are not related 25. How would you use the Google phonebook to conduct research? a. to prompt Google to provide another set of results on the same topic b. by using the name and university of a researcher to find contact information c. by providing a wildcard search d. to format your blog 5 GRM597 Rev. 05/2019 Unit Exam 2 Exam ID: 3c835f21-b6f4-4264-ab62-c7201282303d 1. What type of test defines a specific level of performance (or mastery) of some content domain? a. standardized test b. researcher-made test c. norm-referenced test d. criterion-referenced test 2. In which of the following instances are tests used as dependent variables? a. to assist in selection to a graduate program b. to help in placing a child into an appropriate program based on reading level c. to screen for a possible learning disability d. to determine the effectiveness of a specific type of instruction 3. Inter-rater reliability measures consistency ___________. a. over time b. from form to form c. across different tests d. from rater to rater 4. What is the name of the individual credited with devising levels of measurement in which different measurement outcomes can be classified? a. Binet b. Stevens c. Cattell d. Wechsler 5. When a normal distribution is represented by a histogram, where would most scores fall? a. in the extremes of the distribution b. in the middle of the distribution 1 c. outside of the distribution d. on the high end of the distribution 6. Intelligence tests usually compare the performance of a child against other children of the same age. This type of test is called ___________. a. an achievement test b. a standardized test c. a norm-referenced test d. a criterion-referenced test 7. Which one of the following is NOT an important criterion for increasing reliability? a. eliminate unclear test items b. standardize the environmental conditions in which the test is given c. moderate the ease and difficulty of the test d. use subjective scoring procedures 8. What is one way to obtain a criterion validity estimate? a. ask an expert for his or her opinion b. assess the underlying construct on which the test is based and correlate these scores with the test scores c. select a criterion and correlate scores on the test with scores on the criterion d. obtain a Pearson Product Moment correlation coefficient for two different forms of the test given at different times 9. When we calculate reliability, we know the observed score. What are the two unknown components of the reliability equation? a. method and error scores b. means and standard deviations c. test-retest and inter-rater scores d. true and error scores 10. In a set of scores with a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 5, what raw score is represented by a z score of 1.00? a. 30 b. 55 2 c. 60 d. 20 11. Which one of the following is a disadvantage of multiple-choice tests? a. can be used to assess almost anyone b. limits the kind of content assessed c. are relatively easy to score d. poor writers are not penalized 12. Which is the least frequently established form of reliability? a. inter-rater b. internal consistency c. test-retest d. parallel 13. Which of the following is NOT a component of a multiple-choice question? a. the stem b. the root c. distracters d. alternatives 14. Which measure of central tendency is most often used when the data has extreme scores? a. median b. mean c. midpoint d. mode 15. A standardized test __________. a. is usually commercially produced and requires a common set of administration and scoring procedures b. compares an individual’s test performance to the test performance of others c. relies only on multiple-choice questions d. is designed and administered by a researcher for a specific research study 3 16. The Graduate Record Examination and the Miller’s Analogy Test are generally used for ____________. a. placement b. selection c. evaluation of a program d. diagnosis 17. Which level of measurement is very similar to Thurstone-like scales? a. ordinal b. nominal c. interval d. ratio 18. Which of the following is concerned with monitoring estimates of present performance and predictions of future performance? a. content validity b. criterion validity c. construct validity d. internal validity 19. What do you call research data that has not been analyzed and is still in an unorganized format? a. raw data b. research data c. data points d. descriptive data 20. With no information, what is the chance that a person can guess correctly on a four-option multiple-choice question? a. 100% b. 75% c. 50% d. 25% 21. _________ describes a measure used to compare two different tests with the same group of participants to see how closely correlated the two sets of scores are with each other. 4 a. Inter-rater reliability b. Test-retest reliability c. Parallel-forms reliability d. Internal consistency 22. Two trained professionals observe the behavior of children in a classroom. They each rate observed behaviors using the same form and the number of items that were rated the same is calculated. This is an example of which type of reliability? a. parallel reliability b. test-retest reliability c. inter-rater reliability d. none of the above 23. In a set of scores with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15, what raw score is represented by a z score of 2.00? a. 115 b. 130 c. 100 d. 70 24. If the reason for the difference between the true and observed score is a characteristic of the person taking the test, the resulting decrease in reliability will be attributed to ____________. a. method error b. trait error c. random error d. nonsystematic error 25. What levels of measurement define most variables in behavioral and social science research? a. interval and ratio b. nominal and ordinal c. nominal and ratio d. nominal and interval 5 GRM597 Rev. 05/2019 Unit Exam 3 Exam ID: f6383f4e-4f5a-4917-bf18-91c58e850c05 1. Which of the following is NOT a type of survey research? a. interview b. observation c. focus groups or panels d. questionnaires 2. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a case study? a. It allows close examination of greatly detailed data. b. It provides a rich account of what is being studied. c. It is a quick method of obtaining information. d. Several different types of techniques can be used to obtain data. 3. Which of the following statements about qualitative research would be considered false? a. It allows the researcher to answer different types of questions than quantitative research does. b. It is much less complex than quantitative research because numbers are not extensively involved. c. It is often descriptive in nature. d. Many different types of sources can be utilized in qualitative research. 4. You have a diary thought to be written by a confederate soldier during the Civil War. A hand writing expert believes the writing matches other samples that have already been traced to this man. A carbon-dating expert can verify the age of the document. The diary gives an account of a battle, but you have other documents that contradict some of the events as written. Based on this information, what should you question about the diary? a. authenticity b. accuracy c. validity d. ability to pass a test of external criticism 5. If Helen mistakenly accepts her null hypothesis when it should be rejected, what has occurred? 1 a. Type I error b. Type II error c. researcher bias d. none of the above 6. When a researcher draws conclusions about a population based on the results of a test on a sample, he or she is most likely using which of the following? a. inductive statistics b. deductive statistics c. descriptive statistics d. inferential statistics 7. What is the most frequently used measure of relationships? a. Spearman’s rho b. Pearson product moment c. Student’s t d. Holmes procedure 8. If your research does NOT include a treatment or control group, what type of research are you conducting? a. experimental research b. causal-comparative research c. descriptive research d. quasi-experimental research 9. What does the central limit theorem enable researchers to do? a. compare means from two independent samples b. generalize the results from a sample to a population without knowing the exact nature of the population’s distribution c. compute the significance of a relationship between two variables d. reduce the possibility that chance accounts for variability in the variable of interest 10. What can you conclude if the obtained value of a test statistic exceeds the critical value? a. The null hypothesis cannot be rejected. 2 b. You made an error when calculating the test statistic. c. The null hypothesis can be rejected. d. Your obtained value is not statistically significant. 11. What is the third step of developing an interview? a. selecting a sample b. developing the questions c. training the interviewers d. stating the purpose of the interview 12. What is another term for accuracy? a. authenticity b. secondary c. internal criticism d. validity 13. The critical value decreases when _____________. a. the sample size increases b. the sample size decreases c. the sample is heterogeneous d. the sample is homogeneous 14. Which of the following is a qualitative computer research tool? a. N6 b. NVivo c. SPSS d. APSS 15. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of interviews? a. You may obtain additional helpful information from the interviewee’s nonverbal behavior or the environment. b. They are relatively inexpensive as they do not require much time. c. You can use rapport to help put the interviewee at ease. 3 d. You can schedule the interviews at times that are convenient to you. 16. Which of the following states that regardless of the shape of the population, the means of all the samples selected will be normally distributed? a. Type I Error b. Type II Error c. central limit theorem d. factor analysis 17. What is the best way to begin an interview? a. Be direct. b. Use a tape-recorder. c. Warm-up with some general conversation. d. Make the interviewee feel like an important part of the project. 18. The last step in conducting historical research is ___________. a. interpreting the results b. formulating a hypothesis c. defining a topic or problem d. gathering data 19. Which of the following is an example of a closed-ended interview question? a. Why did you vote for Gerald Ford? b. Did you vote for Gerald Ford? c. What were the reasons for your decision? d. What were the strengths of Gerald Ford’s presidency? 20. Which of the following has the largest potential to decrease the accuracy of an inference made to a population based on a sample? a. variance b. a heterogeneous sample c. a homogeneous sample d. sampling error 21. The minimum or maximum value that one would expect the test statistic to yield if the null 4 hypothesis is true is an example of which of the following? a. critical value b. F value c. F value d. sampling mean 22. One of the keys to successful operation of the central limit theorem is that the sample size must be ___________. a. less than 20 b. greater than 30 c. greater than 40 d. greater than 50 23. What assumption forms the basis for inference? a. A researcher can select a sample that is similar to the population from which it came. b. Null hypotheses can be proven to be false. c. A researcher can select the level at which he/she is willing to risk Type I error. d. The central limit theorem is false. 24. How can Type II errors be reduced? a. decreasing sample size b. homogeneous population c. increasing sample size d. heterogeneous population 25. What is the crucial element in making an accurate inference? a. obtaining a representative sample of the population b. obtaining a representative population of the sample c. being well versed in multivariate statistical procedures d. doing a good literature review 5 GRM597 Rev. 05/2019 Unit Exam 4 Exam ID: eb445ff9-a29e-4544-b30f-440e752d8496 1. Which section presents the specific statistical procedures used along with the results of these procedures? a. discussion b. method c. results d. introduction 2. Which section of a manuscript discusses the reliability of any tests that were used? a. introduction b. methods c. results d. discussion 3. If, while using the nonequivalent control group design, the researcher discovers that groups differ on the pretest measure, one technique which can be used to statistically equalize the groups on the pretest is ____________. a. factor analysis b. Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) c. parallel forms pretesting d. Analysis of Covariance (ANCOVA) 4. Which section of a manuscript reviews the relevant research that has been done in this area? a. introduction b. methods c. abstract d. running header 5. To what does the term internal validity refer? a. the degree to which results of a study can be generalized from one sample to another 1 b. the process of subject selection c. the development of a treatment d. the degree to which the results of a study can be attributed to the manipulation of the independent variable 6. Which of the following threats to external validity happens when subjects receive unintended treatments? a. reactive arrangements b. multiple treatment interference c. experimenter effects d. pretest sensitization 7. Experimental research methods are used ____________. a. to describe some aspect of a certain variable b. to establish a cause-and-effect relationship c. to describe trends in education d. only in biological and physical sciences 8. Professor Russel wants to examine the effectiveness of his new reading instruction method for third graders. He locates two third grade classes in the same school. He assesses all students’ current reading ability at the start of the school year. He then has one classroom utilize his new instruction method while the other classroom uses the traditional method. At the end of the school year, Professor Russell assesses reading ability once again and compares group differences. The design of this study exemplifies which of the following? a. nonequivalent control group design b. static group comparison c. Solomon two group design d. factorial design 9. Compared to longitudinal studies, cross-sectional studies __________. a. have higher mortality rates b. have better comparability of groups c. are much less expensive d. cost the same 10. If it is not possible to randomize or administer a pretest, what is the best choice of design? 2 a. Analysis of Covariance (ANCOVA) b. static group design c. nonequivalent control group design d. Solomon four-group design 11. Single-subject designs have roots in which of the following views of development? a. Piagetian b. behavioral c. organismic d. social learning 12. Besides randomization, which of the following is a technique used to equalize initial group differences? a. using heterogeneous population b. comparing males and females c. using analysis of covariance d. ignoring extraneous variables 13. In a research proposal, what should follow the implications and limitations section? a. appendices b. literature review c. implications and limitations d. method 14. Which of the following threats to external validity happens when the subjects learn information based on the pretest? a. reactive arrangements b. multiple treatment interference c. experimenter effects d. pretest sensitization 15. What is the major limitation of the quasi-experimental design? a. its complexity b. its reliance on continuous independent variables 3 c. the preassignment to groups d. overreliance on randomization 16. The term nonequivalent in “nonequivalent control group design” refers to the nonequivalence of ____________. a. sample size b. pretesting procedures c. groups before the experiment begins d. groups after the experiment has ended 17. What is one disadvantage of the Solomon four-group design? a. It lacks a control group. b. You have to pretest every group. c. It is prone to sampling error. d. It is time-consuming. 18. Which of the following threats to external validity occur if the researcher interacts differently with different subjects? a. reactive arrangements b. multiple treatment interference c. experimenter effects d. pretest sensitization 19. Longitudinal studies examine changes that occur with age; what do cross-sectional studies examine? a. immediate treatment effects across groups b. long-term treatment effects c. age changes d. age differences 20. What is one criticism of the AB single-subject design? a. too short b. may be unethical to not apply a facilitative treatment c. takes too much time and energy 4 d. does not rely on graphical depiction 21. The experimental design that uses one group and a pretest and posttest is called ____________. a. one-group pretest posttest design b. posttest only control group design c. Solomon four-group design d. one-shot case study 22. What is the shortened title which appears at the top of each proposal page called? a. an abstract b. a running head c. an introduction d. a reference 23. What margin spacing should be used in a proposal? a. .5 inches b. 1 inch c. 1.5 inches d. 2 inches 24. What is one suggested limitation of the single subject design? a. significant expense b. internal validity c. external validity d. none of the above 25. Susan has twelve subjects drop out of her study. Which threat to internal validity must she consider? a. mortality b. history c. selection d. randomization 5
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