Physical and Earth Science Test, Physics Homework Help
Physical and Earth Science Test, Physics Homework Help
Physical and Earth Science Test 12th Grade
1. The energy a moving object has because of its motion is called
a. kinetic energy. b. potential energy. c. elastic energy. d. gravitational energy.
2. Which of the following is true when energy transformation occurs?
a. Mechanical energy is lost. b. Mass is converted into energy. c. Mechanical energy doesn’t change. d. The total energy doesn’t change.
3. What is the kinetic energy of a 0.15 kg baseball that is moving with a velocity of 50 m/s?
a. 37.5 J b. 375 J c. 187.5 J d. 7.5 J
4. What is the approximate potential energy of a 65 kg person standing on a step that is 0.15 m above the ground?
a. 9.8 J b. 95.55 J c. 640 J d. 44 J
5. A person on a swing, or a pendulum, that is pulled away to its maximum displacement then released will not return to that same exact location on its return swing because
a. friction and air resistance will take away some of the momentum of the moving object (or person). b. the law of conservation of energy is only a theory. c. the mechanical energy of the movement is equal to the kinetic energy minus the potential energy and the potential energy has changed. d. unless the time of the period (the movement from one area of maximum displacement to the other area of maximum displacement) is calculated, the return will be to a different place.
6. Which of the following is true when considering a nuclear process?
a. Fission always releases more energy than nuclear fusion. b. The law of conservation of energy does not apply to nuclear processes. c. Both fission and fusion are examples of mass being converted to energy. d. Nuclear fission converts mass to energy when small nuclei come together to create new heavier particles.
7. The mechanical energy of a skidding automobile is 100,000 joules (J). When it finally comes to rest at the bottom of a hill it has a potential energy of 10,000 J. Approximately how much energy was converted to heat?
a. 10 J b. 90,000 J c. 110,000 J d. This cannot be determined without knowing the mass of the automobile.
8. Work is something we all do, but which of the following is the most accurate scientific description of work?
a. Work is the result of using a force to move something a specific distance. b. Work can be measured in newtons. c. Work can be calculated from the total distance an object is moved regardless of applied force. d. Work can be related to power by multiplying the work times the seconds that the work was carried out.
9. In which of the following cases is the most power generated?
a. lifting a 10 kg box 1.5 meters b. lifting a 15 kg box 0.50 meters c. Both require the same amount of power. d. This comparison cannot be made without more information.
10. To qualify as a machine, which of the following must be true about using an object to do work?
a. Force out must be less than force in. b. Force in must be less than force out. c. Work in must be less than work out. d. Force in must equal force out.
11. How far (what distance) would you expect to move an object if the machine you were using (such as crowbar or a lever) involved a movement of .010 m from an input of 200 N, but the output force was 500 N? (Ignore any slight thermal energy involved.)
a. 0.10 m b. 0.0040 m c. 1000 m d. 0.25 m
12. A machine is going to be used to lift a 1000 N object. Which of the following would be true if the machine is very efficient?
a. Friction would be very low. b. The output work would be small compared to the input work. c. The mechanical advantage would be large. d. Friction would be very high.
13. Which of the following is an example of a compound machine?
a. steering wheel b. screwdriver c. scissors d. ice scraper
14. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the simple machine known as a wedge?
a. A wedge makes use of a wheel and axle that are applied together. b. A wedge is a type of lever. c. A wedge is a type of modified inclined plane. d. A wedge is an example of a compound machine.
15. Which of the following statements states a relationship that exists between temperature and kinetic energy correctly?
a. When a substance reaches a certain temperature, the particles of the substance have the same kinetic energy. b. Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles of a substance. c. As the kinetic energy of particles in a substance increase, the average temperature must decrease. d. Particles have higher than average kinetic energy when the temperature of a substance is converted to the Kelvin scale.
16. What is the specific heat of a substance?
a. the thermal energy of the substance at room temperature b. the amount of thermal energy the substance absorbs c. the average kinetic energy of a substance d. the amount of heat needed to raise 1 kg of the substance by 1°C
17. Which of the following statements is true of thermal energy?
a. Heat is thermal energy is that flows from something with a higher temperature to something with lower temperature. b. Thermal energy can be measured in watts. c. A ball rolling down a hill has a different thermal energy than a ball sitting still, depending on the temperature outside. d. Thermal energy = kinetic energy – potential energy.
18. Changes in thermal energy depend on the mass of the object that is having heat transferred, the change in temperature before and after the transfer, and
a. the specific heat of the object. b. the time interval of the transfer. c. the temperature scale used (Celsius, Kelvin, etc.). d. all of the above.
19. In which state of matter are the particles most closely packed together?
a. gas b. liquid c. solid d. plasma
20. Which of the following is a good example of plasma?
a. an incandescent light b. the Sun c. a planet d. magma
21. What is the amount of energy needed to change a solid to a liquid at its melting point?
a. absolute zero b. heat of vaporization c. melting point d. heat of fusion
22. What happens to the density of the air inside a hot-air balloon at it is heated?
a. The density of the air increases causing the balloon to rise. b. The density of the air decreases, causing the balloon to rise through the denser, cooler air around it. c. The density stays the same, but the increase in temperature of the air causes the balloon to rise. d. The density of the air increases, causing the air volume to increase.
23. When you touch the outside of a cup of hot chocolate, you begin to feel the heat transfer to your hand primarily due to
a. radiation. b. convection. c. conduction. d. reflection.
24. When heat strikes a material, some of the energy is absorbed, some is reflected, and some is transmitted through the material. Which of the following would be a good conductor of heat energy that would allow it to be absorbed?
a. a fleece jacket b. a black sweater c. an oven mitt d. an aluminum thermos bottle
25. When getting ready for a picnic, you pack some cold food in a foam container. Why will the food remain cold in the foam container longer than it would in a paper sack?
a. The container material is a good conductor of thermal energy. b. The container material is a good insulator. c. The container material causes the density of the cold air inside the container to decrease, making it more difficult to lose heat. d. The air pockets in the container material absorb heat.
26. Which of the following is an example of the first law of thermodynamics?
a. Thermal energy from an ice cube moves into a hot beverage. b. The decrease in thermal energy of a hot object must be greater than the increase in thermal energy of a nearby cool object. c. Heat energy cannot be transferred across the boundary of a system unless work is done by the system. d. The cylinder of an air pump gets warmer as the piston moves inside it.
27. Which of the following is true of thermal energy?
a. You can completely convert thermal energy into mechanical energy. b. A heat engine can be used to convert mechanical energy into thermal energy. c. An internal combustion engine is the most efficient way to convert chemical energy into thermal energy. d. Mechanical energy tends to transform into thermal energy.
28. The accumulation of excess electric charge on an object is called
a. conservation of charge. b. static electricity. c. voltage difference. d. resistance.
29. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Protons and electrons both have a negative charge in an electrically neutral object. b. The positive charge of protons and the negative charge of electrons cancel each other out in an electrically neutral object. c. The negative charge of protons and the positive charge of electrons create an electrical charge in objects. d. The positive charge of protons and the negative charge of neutrons cancel each other out in an electrically neutral object.
30. Lightning is the result of
a. static discharge. b. grounding. c. charging by induction. d. charging by contact.
31. Which of the following would be considered a poor insulator?
a. wood b. rubber c. glass d. copper
32. An object becomes positively charged when it
a. gains neutrons. b. loses protons. c. gains electrons. d. loses electrons.
33. If an electrical circuit is set up to produce a current of 0.25 amps with a resistance of 50.0 ohms, what voltage difference would be present?
a. 12.5 volts b. 200.00 volts c. 0.00500 volts d. 2.00 volts
34. Which of the following is true of a series circuit?
a. The current of a series circuit has two loops to flow through. b. Flashlights are typically wired in a series circuit. c. Household systems are typically wired in a series circuit. d. A series circuit does not follow Ohm’s law.
35. The power of a system depends on current and voltage. How much power would an oven use if it was plugged into a 120 volt outlet and the current was 12 amps?
a. 10 watts b. 1,440 watts c. 0.10 watts d. 144 watts
36. Electrical energy can be calculated from the power and time used to run an electrical device. If you watched a 175 watt television for 30 minutes, how many kilowatt hours of electrical energy would you use?
a. 5,250 kWh b. 350 kWh c. 5.83 kWh d. 0.0875 kWh
37. When a compass is placed near a magnetic field
a. the south end of the compass needle points toward the south pole of the magnet. b. the compass needle does not move. c. the north end of the compass needle points in the direction of the magnetic field. d. the compass needle itself must be made of non-magnetic material.
38. A magnetic domain is
a. a small group of atoms in a magnetic material that have aligned magnetic poles. b. the generic name for the pole of a magnet. c. the area of a compass needle that is painted red (the north pole). d. the open area between the two ends of a horseshoe magnet.
39. As an electric current flows through a wire,
a. a magnetic field is generated that is inversely related to the current. b. magnetic field lines form around the wire that reverse direction when the current is reversed. c. the lines of magnetic force created closest to the wire are the weakest. d. magnetic lines of force are formed around the wire in the same direction regardless of the direction of the current.
40. A device that uses an electromagnet to measure electric current is
a. a solenoid meter. b. an electric motor. c. a generator. d. a galvanometer.
41. What is the function of a transformer?
a. A transformer changes mechanical energy into electrical energy. b. In wind generators, a transformer acts as a turbine. c. A transformer increases or decreases the voltage of an alternating current. d. A transformer changes alternating current to direct current.
42. Fossil fuels are considered non-renewable resources because
a. they are not being produced as fast as they are being used. b. they are no longer being produced. c. they are not a cost-effective method of creating usable energy. d. they contain pollutants that are destroying our environment.
43. Electricity produced from the energy of moving water currently accounts for about nine percent of the electrical energy used in the United States today. This type of energy is produced at
a. geothermal plants. b. solar power plants. c. hydroelectric power plants. d. windmill farms.
44. Currently available alternative fuel sources for automobiles include all of the following except
a. batteries. b. biomass. c. hydrogen. d. nuclear fission.
45. Petroleum is a mixture of thousands of chemical compounds, most of which are
a. hydrocarbons. b. crude oil. c. natural gas. d. lubricants.
46. Nuclear power reactors typically use the uranium-235 isotope. Where in the reactor would you find the uranium?
a. in the heated primary water b. in the fuel rods c. in the turbines d. in the control rods
47. What combines with moisture in the air to form acid precipitation?
a. ozone b. lead c. sulfur dioxide d. oxygen
48. What happens to the magnetic force as the distance between two magnetic poles decreases?
a. It decreases. b. It increases. c. It remains constant. d. It decreases, then increases.
49. What do nuclear power plants produce to generate electric current?
a. steam b. plutonium c. carbon dioxide d. water
50. Which of the following describes carrying capacity?
a. the number of fuel-cell rods that can be stored in a nuclear reactor b. the maximum load capacity of a solar-powered vehicle c. the energy-efficiency rating for new buildings d. the largest number of individuals of a particular species that an environment can support
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