Description
Do you agree that when one enters into a disadvantageous bargaining position because of one’s own voluntary acts (such as ignoring a warning) that an otherwise exploiting act becomes morally permissible because the person assumed the risk, or is the act always impermissible because the person is especially disadvantaged? Why, or why not? APA format References and citations
Explanation & Answer
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The Law and Ethics
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Yes, I totally agree. If an act is exploiting, then it should stay as such whatever the case
might be. However, if the misuse is in the way of some legal of statutory fine or punishment,
then it is allowable because it is a discipline for ignorance or non-compliance. Assuming, one
goes...