1. Tendons and ligaments are similar because they both have: a limited blood supply and low metabolism an abundant blood supply and low metabolism a limited blood supply and high metabolism an abundant blood supply and high metabolism2. What is the name of the outer layer of connective tissue on skeletal muscle? perimysium epimysium endomysium intermediate fascia3. The functional units of skeletal muscle that allow it shorten are: tendons fascicles sarcomeres perimysium4. In terms of muscle actions at the knee joint, the quadriceps and hamstrings are: agonists antagonists synergists none of the above5. Skeletal muscle shortens when: actin and myosin bind and slide past each other it receives a signal from the brain actin and myosin detach from each other none of the above6. A muscular force-couple occurs when: actin and myosin bind and slide past each other two or more muscles concurrently produce force in the same direction to produce one movement actin and myosin detach from each other two or more muscles concurrently produce force in different directions to produce one movement7. When lifting the arm overhead, impingement of the subacromial space is avoided when: synergistic actions occur between the pectorals and supraspinatus a muscular force-couple occurs between the deltoid and supraspinatus synergistic actions occur between the lats and deltoid a muscular force-couple occurs between the deltoid and subscapularis8. During a squat, your client's knees buckle inward as she ascends. This problem is most likely due to: weakness of the hip adductors and external rotators weakness of the hip flexors weakness of the hip adductors and internal rotators weakness of the hip abductors and external rotators9. After a workout, your client mentions that he feels a deep, nervy pain in his shoulder that radiates down to his hand. You first course of action should be to: explain that it's normal and no cause for concern tell him to get cleared from a physician or physical therapist before your next workout stretch his shoulder and see if it alleviates the pain make a note in your training log to decrease the training loads for the next workout10. Your new client mentions that he has left shoulder pain when pressing a 50-pound dumbbell overhead. During your initial movement assessment, what is the most acceptable first step? Have him grab a 50-pound dumbbell and demonstrate the movement Have him grab a 30-pound dumbbell and demonstrate the movement Instruct him to mimic the left shoulder movement without any weight in hand Have him squeeze a ball between his elbows11. When a client with right shoulder pain has been cleared to exercise, which of the following steps comes earliest in the corrective exercise process? Perform corrective exercises for the shoulder Assess whether or not the client can perform diaphragmatic breathing Show the client how to perform self-stretches for the shoulder Perform corrective exercises for the neck12. Your client, Steve, who you haven't trained in 6 weeks calls to schedule a session with you. During the call he mentions that he's been losing weight without a change to his diet, he's been having night sweats, and recently had a fever. You should: schedule a workout with him for your next available time tell him to get cleared from his physician before scheduling a workout with you tell him to take aspirin and rest ask him to call back tomorrow if he's feeling better13. The purpose(s) of diaphragmatic breathing is to help your client: achieve a state of low stress and improve ribcage alignment help your client initiate the fight-or-flight response to improve strength better activate the neck and chest muscles during breathing achieve a state of high stress and improve ribcage alignment14. What is one primary difference between an upper motor neuron and a lower motor neuron? An upper motor neuron exits the spinal cord All upper motor neurons are closer to the brain An upper motor neuron is covered in myelin An upper motor neuron does not exit the spinal cord15. Your new client, John, has 3/10 right shoulder pain at rest. Last week he was cleared to exercise by his physician. After you take him through the first set of a shoulder corrective exercise, he tells you the right shoulder pain has increased to 6/10. What is the next recommended step? Perform another set of the same corrective exercise and see if it helps Refer him back to his physician Move on to the next corrective exercise and see if it helps since he's been recently cleared to exercise Have him immediately stretch his pectoral muscles16. Your client, Sarah, was cleared to exercise 6 weeks ago. She shows up to a workout with you today and you notice that she's limping. She mentions that she twisted her knee playing soccer over the weekend but was hoping your corrective exercises could help her. You should: have her perform a monster walk with a band and see if it reduces her knee pain decrease her training loads by 50% avoid any leg exercises that day and tell her to see a physical therapist in the future explain that she needs to get cleared by a physical therapist before doing any exercises with you17. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? Store calcium and minerals Provide interconnectedness throughout the body Protect organs Produce blood from bone marrow18. Your client, Ryan, starting jogging recently and he informs you that his right IT band has been feeling stiff. He also mentions that his right knee tends to buckle inward when climbing stairs. Which corrective exercise is likely to decrease his IT band stiffness and reduce inward buckling of the right knee? Lateral step with a mini band Foam roll for the quadriceps/IT band area Goblet squat with a pen/marker against each arch Goblet reverse lunge19. The two primary roles of fascia are to: Provide separation between joints, and enhance proprioception Provide interconnectedness throughout the body, and decrease proprioception Provide separation between muscle groups, and enhance proprioception Provide interconnectedness throughout the body, and enhance proprioception20. Which fascial line travels from the bottom of the feet, up through the hamstrings, spine and posterior skull, and attaches at the forehead? Deep front line Superficial back line Lateral line Spiral line21. A concentric muscle action occurs when: the pulling force of a muscle is greater than the resistance force the pulling force of a muscle is less than the resistance force the pulling force of a muscle is equal to the resistance force the pulling force of a muscle is greater than the force of gravity22. For what primary reason is the gluteus maximus the strongest muscle in the human body? It has the most lower motor neurons It is the largest muscle It extends the hip It has no reflex actions23. Considering the 180° of shoulder abduction required to reach overhead, how many degrees comes from the scapulothoracic region? 120° 60° 90° 30°24. The human body loses its balance when what happens? The base of support is not directly over the center of mass. The base of support is narrow The center of mass falls outside of its base of support When a load is held outside of the base of support25. When a client has poor motor control it increases his/her risk of joint pain and injury because of what two reasons? Poor motor control puts less stress on the muscles and joints Poor motor control impairs the smoothness and accuracy of movement Poor motor control increases the speed and timing of movement Poor motor control puts more stress on the muscles and joints26. Which system contains structures and neurons that connect receptors within the skin, muscles, and joints to the cerebellum? Somatosensory system Visual system Vestibular system Balance system27. After months of practicing a movement, an athlete is able to "automatically" produce that movement very quickly. This is due to the development of: Closed-loop motor control Neuroplasticity Open-loop motor control Sensory feedback28. The process that underlies all motor learning is known as: Neuroplasticity Long-term potentiation Open-loop motor control Reflex actions29. Which brain structure is primarily responsible for correcting movement while it's occurring? Cerebral cortex Motor cortex Cerebellum Brainstem30. What is the primary difference between closed-loop and open-loop motor control? Open-loop motor control occurs more slowly Open-loop motor control uses sensory feedback to learn a movement Closed-loop motor control occurs more quickly Closed-loop motor control uses sensory feedback to learn a movement31. Skeletal muscle is directly controlled and innervated by which component of the nervous system? Upper motor neurons Cerebellum Lower motor neurons Sensory cortex32. Which neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction? Acetylcholine Dopamine Serotonin Cortisol33. During an initial meeting with a potential client it's important to ask if he's been experiencing any red flag symptoms. Which of the following is not a red flag? Unexplained weight gain or weight loss A recent fever Fatigue when climbing stairs Night sweats34. During an initial interview with a potential client, he mentions that he has been experiencing pain that feels like it's inside his knee joint. What should you do? This is not a red flag symptom, so move on to the physical assessment This is a red flag symptom, so refer to a health care professional This is not a red flag symptom, but refer to a chiropractor This is a red flag symptom, so start the physical assessment slowly35. You're training a client to learn a new exercise that is unfamiliar to her, and she's struggling to perform the exercise correctly. In order to promote motor learning, how should the sets be performed? Using a slow movement speed with a light load Using a movement speed that's as fast as possible with a light load Using a slow movement speed with a heavy load Using a movement speed that's as fast as possible with a heavy load36. When training a client with a corrective exercise, how many reps should the client perform? The exact number of reps recommended in the Corrective Exercise Specialist course Never more than 3-5 reps per set As many reps as possible until failure Any number of reps that allow for a high quality movement pattern37. What are the three components that you'll use to create a Just Right Challenge for your clients? Belonging, motivation, capacity Motivation, feedback, capacity Autonomy, belonging, competence Motivation, autonomy, belonging38. A client has 6/10 knee pain at the beginning of a workout. At the end of the first set of the lateral step with a mini-band his knee pain decreased to 4/10. At the end of the second set it decreased to 2/10. After the third set, his knee pain increased back to 4/10. What should you do next? Stretch his hamstrings Move on to another corrective exercise that targets the glutes Make a note to never repeat that corrective exercise in the future Perform a fourth set and see if it helps39. What is the purpose of performing the Y raise with the client's chest/trunk resting on a Swiss ball? Promote spinal extension Increase stress on the intervertebral discs Increase activation of the abdominals Restrict spinal extension40. What is the purpose of having your client squeeze a ball between his elbows during an exercise such as the lateral step or monster walk? Promote thoracic flexion Increase activation of the upper trapezius muscles Promote trunk stability Promote lumbar flexion41. What is the purpose of pulling up on one end of the towel during the cervical rotation with towel corrective? Promote cervical flexion Restrict motion of the cervical facet joints Promote upglide of the cervical facet joints on that side Promote downglide of the cervical facet joints on that side42. A stiff/shortened pectoralis minor causes which compensation of the scapula? Posterior tilt Retraction Anterior tilt Depression43. Regarding the ball wall push with hip hinge corrective, what is the purpose of using a progressively smaller ball over time? To create a more stable contact point To create a more unstable contact point To increase activation of the pectoralis muscles None of the above44. What muscles are primarily targeted when your client performs the posterior shoulder ball roll? Rhomboids and lats Serratus anterior and rhomboids Infraspinatus and teres minor/major Supraspinatus and upper trapezius45. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt is typically associated with weakness/inhibition of which two muscle groups? Thoracolumbar extensors and hamstrings Glutes and abdominals Hamstrings and hip flexors Quadriceps and calves46. Why is static stretching of the hamstrings not recommended for a person with anterior pelvic tilt? It could create more pelvic instability because the hamstrings are "locked long" Because the hamstrings already have plenty of mobility It could create more pelvic instability since the hamstrings are "locked short" Because the hamstrings should never be stretched47. For a client with excessive posterior pelvic tilt, what is the purpose of the cat-camel exercise? Reduce spinal friction and restrict anterior pelvic tilt Increase spinal friction and promote anterior pelvic tilt Reduce spinal friction and promote anterior pelvic tilt Increase spinal friction and promote posterior pelvic tilt48. Why is it important to learn how to identify compensations seen during the modified Thomas Test? Because most people have excessive mobility of the anterior hip muscles Because most people have stiff hamstrings and weak glutes Because the test identifies poor lumbopelvic control Because most people have short/stiff anterior hip muscles49. Your client is performing the foam roll mobility drill for her right quadriceps. How should you instruct her during the drill? "Your right quadriceps should stay fully contracted." "Your right quadriceps should remain completely relaxed." "Your right quadriceps should stay partially contracted." None of the above50. Your client demonstrates right knee valgus while performing a lunge or squat. Which of the following muscles is likely to be overactive and have sore trigger points? Left gluteus medius Right gluteus medius Right tensor fascia latae (TFL) Right vastusmedius51. Why is it recommended to perform the hip thrust after mobilizing the hip flexors? To actively move the hip joint into the new, greater range of extension To actively engage the hip flexors To actively move the hip joint into the new, greater range of flexion To increase lumbar lordosis52. Which of the following is not a recommended strategy to reduce the likelihood of a hamstring cramp during the single-leg hip thrust? Move the foot of the working leg further from the trunk Have her place her right fingertips against her right glute Use a partial range of motion for the first few reps Move the foot of the working leg closer to the trunk53. What is the biggest risk factor for your client to experience a future right hamstring injury? Weakness of the right hip flexors Right hamstring hypermobility Previous right hamstring injury Right hamstring stiffness54. Which of the following athletes would likely require more than 20° of ankle dorsiflexion? Olympic lifter Golfer Pitcher Shot putter55. Which of the following impairments is likely to cause your client to shift his trunk excessively forward during the lowering phase of a squat? Poor mobility of the hamstrings Excessive lumbar lordosis Poor mobility of quadriceps Poor dorsiflexion56. Why is a pen/marker placed against the client's arch during the wall ankle mobilization drill? To promote pronationsince it's a common compensation To restrict pronationsince it's a common compensation To keep the base of the big toe off the ground None of the above57. When your client has poor extension of the big toe, which of the following structures can it negatively affect while running? Lower limbs Pelvis Both A and B None of the above58. The foot inversion assessment measures mobility of which muscle group? Peroneals Hamstrings Plantarflexors Toe flexors59. Which of the following is a benefit to performing the chin tuck exercise? Inhibition of the deep neck flexors Increased mobility of the suboccipital muscles Increased mobility for cervical extension Increased tension in the pectoralis minor muscles60. Which of the following is an example of "proximal stability creates distal mobility?" Decreased hamstring mobility after performing a plank Increased hamstring mobility after stretching the calves Increased shoulder mobility after stretching the pectorals Increased hamstring mobility after performing a plank61. Your client has low back pain while holding a plank for 10 seconds, but can hold it for 5 seconds without pain. What should you do for the next set? Perform another set of the plank for 5 seconds Instruct the client to hold the plank until he feels pain Perform another set of the plank with the goal of 10 seconds without pain Move on to a different exercise62. Which of the following is activated when your client can bear down correctly? Hip abductors Pectorals Pelvic floor musculature Lats63. For the reverse goblet lunge with band, what is the purpose of the band attempting to pull the knee of the working leg into valgus? To activate the hip muscles that resist knee valgus To activate the hip flexors To encourage additional knee valgus To activate the IT band64. Your new client is unable to deadlift without low back pain. Which of the following steps should you perform first? Place a mini-band above his knees and retest the deadlift Test the strength of his hip abductors Assess hamstring mobility Assess his ability to bear down correctly65. While coaching your client to perform the hip hinge posture correctly, what is the purpose of the "anti-shrug" portion of the drill that lowers the shoulders? Activate the lats Inhibit the lats Encourage lumbar flexion Activate the upper trapezius66. Your client's right knee falls into valgus while she performs the hip hinge with mini-band. Which of the following cues would provide her with an external focus to correct the error? "Attempt to pull your right foot out more" "Pull your right knee out more" "Increase the stretch of the right side of the band" "Squeeze your right glute harder"67. Which of the following best describes how your client should step during a monster walk? Short steps, land with a flat foot Large steps, land with the front of the foot Short steps, land with the front of the foot Large steps, land with the heel first68. While performing a barefoot reverse lunge with the client's right leg in front, your client's right foot overly pronates. Which of the following is a corrective strategy that provides an external focus? Have the client perform the exercise wearing shoes Instruct the client to bear down harder during the lunge Place a pen/marker against the arch of the client's right foot Instruct the client to pull his/her right knee out during the lunge69. When your client performs the wall elbow walk with band, where should he feel it working? Upper trapezius Posterior shoulder Anterior shoulder Low back70. You've noticed that your client's right scapula wings while he performs the lowering phase of a push-up. Which of the following correctives would most likely benefit him? Upper trapezius stretch Posterior stability hold with head rotation Hip hinge with mini-band Plank roll71. The downward dog corrective has been helping your client improve his dumbbell shoulder press technique. Over the weekend he strained his right wrist and it still bothers him. Which of the following steps should you take? Have him attempt the downward dog and rate his wrist pain on a scale of 1-10 Choose a completely different corrective Perform the downward dog with his elbows resting on the floor None of the above72. Research demonstrates a link between weak hip abductors and which of the following? Iliotibial band syndrome (ITBS) Strong hip flexion strength Poor hip extension strength None of the above73. When your client performs the sphinx with reach exercise, why is it important to avoid a shoulder shrug in the support arm? To minimize serratus anterior activation To increase activation of the abdominals To maximize serratus anterior activation To increase activation of the upper trapezius74. When your client performs the scapular activation drill with the arm held at an upward angle, which of the following positions is most appropriate? A shoulder position far from a position of pain A shoulder position at the first point of pain A shoulder position at the maximum pain point A shoulder position just short of pain75. Why is it important to avoid telling your client that you're performing a postural assessment? He/she will inevitably stand with better posture than normal He/she will feel embarrassed and will not want to improve posture To protect yourself against a lawsuit None of the above76. During a sagittal plane view postural assessment you notice that your client stands with his knees slightly flexed. Which of the following does that indicate? His hamstrings are overly active His hip flexors are inhibited He has sufficient glute strength He is a quad dominant person77. During a frontal plane view postural assessment you notice that your client's left shoulder appears to be elevated/shrugged at rest. Which of the following is the most appropriate corrective? Stretch for the left rhomboids Stretch for the left upper trapezius Stretch for the right pectoralis minor Stretch for the left pectoralis78. A client that demonstrates upper crossed syndrome typically has weakness in which of the following muscle groups? Levator scapulae Upper trapezius Deep neck flexors Pectorals79. Which of the following negative effects can occur if your client performs a stretch or lacrosse ball mobilization drill while being stressed and in a heightened state of pain? It can engage the sympathetic nervous system and impair tissue relaxation It can engage the sympathetic nervous system and promote tissue relaxation It can engage the parasympathetic nervous system and impair tissue relaxation It can engage the parasympathetic nervous system and promote tissue relaxation80. Stiff suboccipital muscles can impair which of the following cervical movements? Cervical extension Cervical rotation Cervical flexion Both B and C81. The overhead reach is recommended as one way to assess your client's shoulder function for which of the following reasons? It's one of the least challenging movements for the shoulder complex It doesn't require activation of the deltoid muscle It's one of the most challenging movements for the shoulder complex None of the above82. If the chin tuck with lacrosse ball loosened the suboccipital muscles, which of the following cervical movements should have a greater range of motion? Cervical rotation Cervical flexion Cervical extension Both A and B83. Research demonstrates that activating the deep neck flexors can produce which of the following benefits? Less pain in the shoulders Less pain in the neck Less pain in the low back Both A and B84. Which of the following is a hypothesized benefit of foam roller exercises? Increased overlap of the sarcomeres within muscle Restored water balance in the muscles and fascia Significant reduction in scar tissue Increased protective tension in fascial tissues85. What is the purpose of performing the t-spine rotation drill from the quadruped position with one supporting arm on the ground? To promote activation of the pectoralis muscle in the supporting arm To minimize t-spine extension To promote activation of the serratus anterior in the supporting arm To promote lumbar flexion86. Your client was able to improve his exercise technique through the cues you gave him, without any change in load. This indicates an improvement in which of the following? Strength Mobility Motor control None of the above87. Which muscles are typically overactive in the lower crossed syndrome that was described by Prof. Janda? Hip flexors/thoracolumbar extensors Hip extensors/hip flexors Hip flexors/thoracolumbar flexors Hip extensors/thoracolumbar extensors88. Which of the following is a position your client should avoid while performing the cat-camel exercise? Lumbar flexion Posterior pelvic tilt Lumbar extension An extreme end-range of motion stretch89. During the modified Thomas Test assessment for your client's right hip, she demonstrates hip abduction in the resting position. Which of the following does this indicate? Excessive length of the right tensor fascia latae Excessive length of the right iliopsoas Shortening/stiffness of the right tensor fascia latae Shortening/stiffness of the right rectus femoris90. Which muscle group is the hip thrust exercise intended to strengthen? Peroneals Glutes Hip flexors Abdominals91. Research demonstrates a relationship between knee pain and which of the following? Strong hip abductors Weak abdominals Stiff hamstrings Weak hip abductors92. Knee valgus is commonly associated with which of the following compensations? Excessive pronation of the feet Weak abdominals Stiff hamstrings Weak hip abductors93. Your client, William, sits for many hours each day at his computer. Which of the following compensations are you likely to observe? Posterior pelvic tilt Shortened hip flexors Both A and B None of the above94. Your client is a professional basketball player with a 40" vertical jump and he experiences no low back or knee pain. You assess his hamstring mobility at the popliteal angle and determine that it's less than normal. What should you do? Recommend exercises to strengthen his hip flexors Leave his hamstrings alone Recommend static stretches for his hamstrings None of the above95. During a sagittal plane postural assessment you observe anteriorly rotated shoulders. Which of the following correctives is most likely to benefit the client? Stretches for the middle trapezius Strengthening exercises for the pectorals Stretches for the rhomboids Stretches for the pectorals96. When your client lacks dorsiflexion, which of the following compensations is common to observe during a squat? Poor hip extension Knee valgus Excessive anterior trunk shift Excessive lumbar lordosis97. Maximal contraction of the hip extensors results in relaxation of the hip flexors. This is an example of what neural arrangement? Reciprocal innervation Stretch reflex Reciprocal activation None of the above98. Activating the hip abductors has been shown to increase mobility of which of the following muscle groups? Lats Abdominals Calves Hamstrings99. Iliotibial band syndrome (ITBS) is caused by which of the following? Strong hip extensors Stiff hamstrings An overuse injury of the IT band Excessive strength of the hip abductors100. What is the optimal depth you should train your client to squat from without pain? The depth required for the client's life or sport A half squat since anything lower isn't necessary The height of a standard chair A full squat where the hamstrings touch the calves

Group 1 topics: 1-A) Microbiology is essential for a career in nursing and allied health.  In the lecture, we learned about the importance of identifying microbes and subsequent steps in managing infections.  Describe Kock’s postulate, pure cultures, and media we learned in class to help identify microbes. 1-B) Microorganisms are ubiquitous and diverse.  They have different characteristics that place them in different taxonomic groups. An understanding of these groups supports infection management and informs the patient care plan.  Describe the similarities (nucleic acid, cell membrane/lipid structure, protein/amino acids) and differences (cellular structures) among the different microorganisms (eg. prokaryotes vs. eukaryotes) we covered in class. 1-C) Enumerating microbe is an important method to determine treatment outcomes.  Describe methods (dilutions, plating for CFU, and instruments) used to enumerate microbes.     Group 3 topics: 3-A) Understanding the host immune responses in essential in the treatment and care of patients.  Pick a pathogen (virus or bacteria) and describe: What are the PAMPs that are associated with the pathogen. Describe what happens to an innate immune cell that encounters the pathogen. Describe what happens to an adaptive immune cell in response to the pathogen.  3-B) Describe the function of antibodies and the result of the pathogen for all of the following: Neutralization. Opsonization. Complement activation.

Part 1 (one week to complete): Choose 5 of the questions below to answer in a short paragraph or two, a list, or a chart. Each answer is worth up to 10 points for a total of 50. You may submit files and images via Canvas. Please type as much as of your work as possible (okay to submit photos of handwritten squares, charts math, etc, as long as it is neat and legible) and make neat charts if applicable.Part 2 (timed 40 minutes):Fill out a worksheet to label the bones of the human body (5 points), and identify bones and skulls as directed in the assignment (10 points).The exam is worth a total of 65 points.For each question, answer as thoroughly as possible if you want full points. Be sure to address all parts of the question.You will be evaluated on how well you answer as well as how well you can demonstrate your knowledge of class learning objectives and concepts (both in general and in detail). It is a good idea to use your book and any other class materials, including slideshows, videos, and notes. It is NOT A GOOD IDEA to look up answers online. Answers that are plagiarized or obviously inspired by web searches will not get credit. This exam is intended to evaluate your understanding of course objectives and your ability to utilize your book and other class materials (not your ability to search the web).EXAM PART 1 QUESTION CHOICES**Alternative (if you choose this, label it 'LAB 8 Exercises'):This option is simply available since we ran out of time in class to really complete chapter 8. YOU DO NOT HAVE TO CHOOSE THIS ALTERNATIVE>>> You can also choose 5 questions below, 10 points each.OPTION: for a 'TWO FOR ONE'-- do the 'ALTERNATIVE' which will cover TWO of the five questions required: you may complete some of the chapter 8 exercises. For 20 points, complete the concept review for chapter 8 (just write/type the answers to the questions on page 239-240). Then complete ex. 1,2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 using your textbook... You can attach images of the completed worksheets, or you can type up the answers. The chapter 8 exercises are worth UP TO 20 points. (or TWO OF THE FIVE REQUIRED QUESTIONS!!) If you decide to do the CR AND exercises for chapter 8, you should still answer THREE questions below.Regular choices CHOOSE 5 QUESTIONS BELOW TO ANSWER CLEARLY AND THOROUGHLY. Questions should be answered in 1-3 well developed paragraphs answering all parts of the questions. Problem solving should show your work for each step:Cells and DNA: Describe mitosis and meiosis. What are the steps in each, and what is the final outcome? When thinking about Meiosis, how does it confirm Mendel’s ideas about segregation and independent assortment of traits? Describe how genetic information is copied and passed on to future generations during the process of cell division.2. What is DNA? Where is it located, and what are its main functions? How has DNA been used to compare living species and determine evolutionary relationships?3. Genetics: Solve the following genetics problem by determining how the following traits would assort. Use D/d for Rh. Remember Rh+ is dominant, and Rh- is recessive. Use A, B and O for blood types. Remember it is a co-dominant system with O as the only recessive allele.The mother is type AB- and the father is type A+List all possibilities for each parent’s genotype using what you know from the information given so far (assuming you have only read (a) above.Now assume the father is heterozygous for both traits. What are the genotypes you will use for each parent?Create a double square (dihybrid cross) to assort these two traits. Show your work.What are the possible genotypes for each child? Provide a percentage (or a fraction) for each possible genotype.What are the possible phenotypes for each child? Provide a percentage (or a fraction) for each phenotype.What are the chances of having a child that is heterozygous for both traits? Provide a percentage and explain your answer.Is there any possibility that a child will be born to these parents that will show the recessive phenotype(s) for both traits? Explain: Why or why not?Genetics: Using the Hardy-Weinberg equation, determine the genotype frequencies we should expect in the next generation, given the following scenario. Show your work.Background: the alleles that control for sickle cell anemia are co-dominant, meaning that if both alleles are present, both phenotypes are expressed. Sickle cell anemia is a condition that is fatal in the homozygous condition (SS). Normal hemoglobin in the blood is (AA). If a person is (AS), this means that they will not die from sickle cell, but may experience some mild symptoms. An advantage of being heterozygous (AS) is that carriers of the (S) allele will have some immunity to malaria, whereas those with (AA) are more likely to suffer and possibly die from this mosquito-born illness.In your population there are 200 individuals that colonize a new planet. Out of those 200, 50 people in that population are heterozygous for sickle cell anemia.How many total alleles in the population for this trait?Determine the percentage of alleles in the population that are S.Determine the percentage of alleles that are A.Use the formula to predict the frequency of sickle cell anemia in the next generation. Use the A allele for P and the S allele for q.How many newborns will likely die from sickle cell anemia in the colony?How many people will be heterozygous?How many homozygous for the A allele?What factors (if any) do these predictions depend on?Primates: If you are observing a skeleton with the following traits, how would you classify this species, and what would be your best guess as to the primary mode of locomotion, and dietary pattern? Be as specific as possible, given what you know.PRIMATE 1The dental formula is 2:1:3:3The skeleton is very smallThe foot/ankle bones and leg bones are elongatedThe eye orbits are not fully enclosed, but there is bone behind the eye (more than a post orbital bar) and the eyes are very largeThe teeth have sharp cusps on the molars and premolarsPRIMATE 2The dental formula is 2:1:2:3The skeleton is large and robustThe leg bones are very long, the arms are a little shorter, the ankle bones are short and roundThe eye orbits are fully enclosedThe brain case is between 1200-1400cc in volumePRIMATE 3The dental formula is 2:1:3:3The size is between the first and second primate aboveThe arms and legs are of nearly equal lengthThe tail is muscular and curvedThe habitat is arborealPRIMATE 4The dental formula is 2:1:2:3The size is between primates 1 and 2The arms are longer than the legs, and the toes and fingers are long and curvedThe brain is larger than primates 1 and 3, but smaller than primate 2The canines are very large, but the molar teeth are worn smooth.Primates: describe the taxonomy of primates presented in your book. Which infraorder includes monkeys, and what are the names of the two parvorders that contain all species of monkey living today? What features do all monkeys share, and what are the key differences between these two parvorders?Which primates are NOT usually classified as or referred to as monkeys? Describe at least three groups (taxonomic groups) of primates that are NOT monkeys, and explain what features set them apart from monkeys. For bragging rights, identify all four groups.Comparative Anatomy: Discuss sexual dimorphism as it applies to humans. Discuss at least three specific traits observable in the cranium or post-cranial skeleton where males and females differ explain the differences. Now compare human sexual dimorphism to the degree of sexual dimorphism found in great apes. How does this correlate with our social organization? How do some or all of the traits you describe reflect evolutionary trends?Hominids: Using your book and any notes from class, Compare Pre Australopiths, Australopiths, Early Homo later Homo, and Modern humans terms of the following features: Cranial Features (at least 3 features), skeletal features (at least 3 features), and Tool use/culture. You may use a chart or write it out in paragraph form.Hominids: Describe your favorite hominid (habitual or obligate biped) NOT in the genus Homo. What do we know about this hominid, and how do we know it? Where and when did it live? Where and when was it discovered? Was it an ancestor to the genus Homo? Compare and contrast the features with features of the members of the genus Homo.Given what you have learned about evolution, what physical changes do you think will occur in the bodies of Homo sapiens in the next 500,000 years? Describe any changes in phenotype, bones of the skeleton, cranial features, etc. that you imagine, but be sure to describe a realistic way for them to occur (remember the ‘four’ces of evolution and how they work.