Question 1
1. In older systems, often the user interface mainly consisted of ____-control screens that
allowed a user to send commands to the system.
a. physical
b. input
c. process
d. command
5 points
Question 2
1. ____ describes the relationship between computers and the people who use them to
perform business-related tasks.
a. UI
b. PCI
c. PI
d. HCI
5 points
Question 3
1. A(n) ____ is a user interface that allows users to interact with graphical objects and pointing
devices.
a. HCI
b. GUI
c. UI
d. PCI
5 points
Question 4
1. Good interface design is based partly on ____, which focuses on how an interface can be
made attractive and easy to use.
a. output security
b. aesthetics
c. interface technology
d. ergonomics
Question 5
1. Good interface design is based partly on ____, which provides the operational structure
required to carry out the design objectives.
a. aesthetics
b. output security
c. ergonomics
d. interface technology
5 points
Question 6
1. The ____ is a control feature at the top of a data entry screen that displays the main menu
options.
a. control bar
b. menu bar
c. radio bar
d. menu box
5 points
Question 7
1. A(n) ____ displays only those records that meet a specific condition or conditions.
a. detail report
b. exception report
c. summary report
d. all of the above
Question 8
1. For upper-level managers who often want to see total figures and do not need supporting
details, a(n) ____ is appropriate.
a. detail report
b. exception report
c. summary report
d. all of the above
5 points
Question 9
1. The concept that the quality of the output is only as good as the quality of the input, which
sometimes is known as ____, is familiar to IT professionals, who recognize that the best time
to avoid problems is when data is entered.
a. bad input, bad output (BIBO)
b. garbage in, garbage out (GIGO)
c. weak hand, weak hold (WHWH)
d. poor start, poor finish (PSPF)
5 points
Question 10
1. On a source document, the ____ contains codes, identification information, numbers, and
dates that are used for storing completed forms.
a. totals zone
b. control zone
c. heading zone
d. authorization zone
Question 11
1. On a source document, the main part of the form, called the ____, usually takes up at least
half of the space on the form and contains captions and areas for entering variable data.
a. body zone
b. instruction zone
c. authorization zone
d. heading zone
5 points
Question 12
1. When designing data entry screens, provide an on-screen instruction to let users know the
date format, and provide an example if the user must enter ____.
a. clones
b. masks
c. verifiers
d. separators
5 points
Question 13
1. An existence check is a data validation check that ____.
a. is used for mandatory data items
b. identifies values that are questionable, but not necessarily wrong
c. is performed on two or more fields to ensure that they are consistent or reasonable
when considered together
d. tests data items to verify that they fall between a specified minimum and maximum
value
Question 14
1. A range check is a data validation check that ____.
a. identifies values that are questionable, but not necessarily wrong
b. tests data items to verify that they fall between a specified minimum and maximum
value
c. is used for mandatory data items
d. is performed on two or more fields to ensure that they are consistent or reasonable
when considered together
5 points
Question 15
1. A reasonableness check is a data validation check that ____.
a. identifies values that are questionable, but not necessarily wrong
b. tests data items to verify that they fall between a specified minimum and maximum
value
c. is used for mandatory data items
d. is performed on two or more fields to ensure that they are consistent or reasonable
when considered together
5 points
Question 16
1. A combination check is a data validation check that ____.
a. identifies values that are questionable, but not necessarily wrong
b. tests data items to verify that they fall between a specified minimum and maximum
value
c. is performed on two or more fields to ensure that they are consistent or reasonable
when considered together
d. is used for mandatory data items
Question 17
1. In most organizations, the ____ department is responsible for output control and security
measures.
a. police
b. security
c. IT
d. finance
5 points
Question 18
1. Because every piece of information should be traceable back to the input data that
produced it, a(n) ____ trail must be provided that records the source of each data item and
when it entered the system.
a. control
b. audit
c. source
d. index
5 points
Question 19
1. A data ____, which is a framework for organizing and storing data, consists of one or more
files or tables.
a. integral
b. index
c. structure
d. roster
Question 20
1. One problem in a file processing environment is ____, which means that data common to
two or more information systems is stored in several places.
a. referential integrity
b. rigid data structure
c. data redundancy
d. data integrity
5 points
Question 21
1. In a typical file processing environment, ____ problems can occur if updates are not applied
in every file.
a. referential integrity
b. data redundancy
c. rigid data structure
d. data integrity
5 points
Question 22
1. In a file-oriented information system, a transaction file ____.
a. is a temporary file created by an information system for a single task
b. is created and saved for backup and recovery purposes
c. stores records that contain day-to-day business and operational data
d. stores relatively permanent data about an entity
Question 23
1. In a file-oriented information system, a work file ____.
a. stores relatively permanent data about an entity
b. stores records that contain day-to-day business and operational data
c. is created and saved for backup and recovery purposes
d. is a temporary file created by an information system for a single task
5 points
Question 24
1. A(n) ____ is a collection of tools, features, and interfaces that enables users to add, update,
manage, access, and analyze the contents of a database.
a. HCI
b. scale set
c. DBMS
d. RMS
5 points
Question 25
1. ____ means that a system can be expanded, modified, or downsized easily to meet the
rapidly changing needs of a business enterprise.
a. Compatibility
b. Functionality
c. Cardinality
d. Scalability
Question 26
1. A(n) ____, which is used to access stored data, allows a user to specify a task without
specifying how the task will be accomplished.
a. query language
b. machine language
c. markup language
d. assembly language
5 points
Question 27
1. The complete definition of a database, including descriptions of all fields, tables, and
relationships, is called a(n) ____.
a. connective
b. collective
c. exchange
d. schema
5 points
Question 28
1. ____ is an industry-standard protocol that makes it possible for software from different
vendors to interact and exchange data
a. JDBC
b. JVC
c. OEC
d. ODBC
Question 29
1. JDBC enables ____ applications to exchange data with any database that uses SQL
statements and is compliant with the standard.
a. Java
b. HTML
c. Web
d. Perl
5 points
Question 30
1. A ____ is a text document written in HTML.
a. Web browser
b. Web site
c. Web server
d. Web page
5 points
Question 31
1. HTML uses formatting codes called ____, which specify how the text and visual elements on
a Web page will be displayed in a Web browser.
a. blocks
b. entities
c. schema
d. tags
Question 32
1. To bridge the gap between a database and the Web and enable data to be viewed and
updated, it is necessary to use ____, which is software that integrates different applications
and allows them to exchange data.
a. middleware
b. hardware
c. freeware
d. shareware
5 points
Question 33
1. During the systems design phase, ____ fields are used to organize, access, and maintain data
structures.
a. glossary
b. tabular
c. key
d. content
5 points
Question 34
1. One type of validity check, called ____ integrity, is a set of rules that avoids data
inconsistency and quality problems.
a. combinatorial
b. candidate
c. referential
d. foreign
Question 35
1. A(n) ____ is a graphical model of an information system that depicts the relationships
among system entities.
a. ERD
b. ODBC
c. SQL
d. OCE
5 points
Question 36
1. ____ is the process of creating table designs by assigning specific fields or attributes to each
table in a database.
a. Encryption
b. Standardization
c. Encapsulation
d. Normalization
5 points
Question 37
1. Some abbreviation codes are called ____ codes because they use a specific combination of
letters that are easy to remember.
a. rhapsodic
b. mnemonic
c. sequence
d. harmonic
Question 38
1. When a system reads a physical record, it loads the data from storage into a ____, which is a
segment of computer memory.
a. client
b. table
c. password
d. buffer
5 points
Question 39
1. Most date formats now are based on the model established by the International
Organization for Standardization (ISO), which requires a format of ____.
a. two digits for the year, two for the month, and two for the day (YYMMDD)
b. four digits for the year, two for the month, and four for the day (YYYYMMDDDD)
c. four digits for the year, two for the month, and two for the day (YYYYMMDD)
d. two digits for the year, four for the month, and two for the day (YYMMMMDD)
5 points
Question 40
1. ____ is the process of converting readable data into unreadable characters to prevent
unauthorized access to the data.
a. Encryption
b. Normalization
c. Encapsulation
d. Standardization
Question 41
1. In the event of a file catastrophe, ____ can be used to restore the file or database to its
current state at the time of the last backup.
a. crow’s foot notation
b. standard notation format
c. recovery procedures
d. audit log files
5 points
Question 42
1. Every information system involves ____.
a. data storage and access methods
b. application programs to handle the programming logic
c. an interface that allows users to interact with the system
d. all of the above
5 points
Question 43
1. A system design where the server performs all the processing is described as ____.
a. mainframe architecture
b. workstation architecture
c. thin architecture
d. thick architecture
Question 44
1. In a(n) ____ design, the remote user’s keystrokes are transmitted to the mainframe, which
responds by sending screen output back to the user’s screen.
a. centralized
b. open
c. closed
d. distributed
5 points
Question 45
1. In an n-tier system, special utility software called ____ enables the tiers to communicate and
pass data back and forth.
a. middleware
b. groupware
c. centralware
d. shareware
5 points
Question 46
1. A ____ is an entrance to a multifunction Web site.
a. DDBMS
b. batch link
c. portal
d. topology
Question 47
1. In the OSI (Open System Interconnection) model, the application layer ____.
a. defines specific methods of transmitting data over the physical layer
b. defines control structures that manage the communications link between computers
c. contains physical components that carry data
d. provides network services requested by a local workstation
5 points
Question 48
1. In the OSI (Open System Interconnection) model, the presentation layer ____.
a. contains physical components that carry data
b. provides reliable data flow and error recovery
c. defines network addresses and determines how data is routed over the network
d. assures that data is uniformly structured and formatted for network transmission
5 points
Question 49
1. In all cases, a network must use a ____, which is a set of standards that govern network data
transmission.
a. protocol
b. router
c. hub
d. switch
Question 50
1. A popular network protocol is ____, which today is the backbone of the Internet.
a. FTP
b. Telnet
c. TCP/IP
d. all of the above
5 points
Question 51
1. A disadvantage of a bus network is that ____.
a. performance can decline as more users and devices are added
b. devices cannot be attached or detached without disturbing the rest of the network
c. failure in one workstation necessarily affects other workstations on the network
d. all of the above
5 points
Question 52
1. A ____ resembles a circle of computers that communicate with each other.
a. bus network
b. hierarchical network
c. star network
d. ring network
Question 53
1. A(n) ____ is relatively inexpensive to install and is well-suited to workgroups and users who
are not anchored to a specific desk or location.
a. WLAN
b. MLAN
c. LAN
d. XLAN
5 points
Question 54
1. In its wireless configuration, the ____ point is similar to a hub in the LAN star topology,
except it provides network services to wireless clients instead of wired clients.
a. linkage
b. hub
c. access
d. network
5 points
Question 55
1. Most business WLANs use access points and do not utilize the ____.
a. DSS
b. ISS
c. BSS
d. ESS
Question 56
1. The ____ was formed in 1999 to certify interoperability of wireless network products based
on IEEE 802.11 specifications.
a. Wireless Network
b. Wi-Fi Alliance
c. W3C
d. NSF
5 points
Question 57
1. A form of wireless transmission called ____ is very popular for short-distance wireless
communication that does not require high power.
a. USB
b. Mbps
c. RFID
d. Bluetooth
5 points
Question 58
1. The ____ section in a typical system design specification contains the complete design for a
new system, including the user interface, outputs, inputs, files, databases, and network
specifications.
a. System Components
b. Time and Cost Estimates
c. Executive Summary
d. Implementation Requirements
Question 59
1. The ____ section in a typical system design specification describes the constraints, or
conditions, affecting a system, including any requirements that involve operations,
hardware, systems software, or security.
a. System Components
b. Executive Summary
c. Time and Cost Estimates
d. System Environment
5 points
Question 60
1. To develop a user-centered interface, a designer must learn to think like a user and see the
system through a user’s eyes.
True
False
5 points
Question 61
1. When designing an interface, to provide features that promote efficiency use default values
if the majority of values in a field are the same.
True
False
5 points
Question 62
1. Either a page header or a page footer, which appears at the bottom of a page, is used to
display the report title and the page number.
True
False
Question 63
1. Every page in a report should include a page header, which appears at the top of the page
and includes the column headings that identify the data.
True
False
5 points
Question 64
1. A major challenge of Web-based form design is that most people read and interact
differently with on-screen information compared to paper forms.
True
False
5 points
Question 65
1. When designing data entry screens, provide users with an opportunity to confirm the
accuracy of input data before entering it.
True
False
5 points
Question 66
1. Web pages are stored on a Web server, which is a computer that receives requests and
makes Web pages available to users.
True
False
Question 67
1. Three main types of relationships that can exist between entities are a one-to-one
relationship, abbreviated 1:1; a one-to-many relationship, abbreviated 1:M; and a many-tomany relationship, abbreviated M:N.
True
False
5 points
Question 68
1. In an M:N relationship, the two entities are linked by an event or transaction called an
associative entity, which has its own set of attributes and characteristics.
True
False
5 points
Question 69
1. A table design specifies the fields and identifies the primary key in a particular table or file.
True
False
5 points
Question 70
1. Field X is functionally dependent on field Y if the value of field X depends on the value of
field Y.
True
False
Question 71
1. A popular rule of thumb is that a design is in 3NF if every nonkey field depends on the key,
the whole key, and nothing but the key.
True
False
5 points
Question 72
1. Normal forms beyond 3NF exist, but they rarely are used in business-oriented systems.
True
False
5 points
Question 73
1. Relational databases can run on many platforms, including personal computers.
True
False
5 points
Question 74
1. A data warehouse allows users to specify certain dimensions, or characteristics.
True
False
5 points
Question 75
1. The basic elements of logical data are alphabetic or numeric characters, such as the
letter A or the number 9.
True
False
Question 76
1. To protect stored data, users can be asked to furnish a proper user ID and password to
access a file or database.
True
False
5 points
Question 77
1. Implementation of early client/server systems was expensive because clients needed more
powerful hardware and software to handle shared processing tasks.
True
False
5 points
Question 78
1. Today, client/server architecture is the dominant form of systems design, using Internet
protocols and traditional network models.
True
False
5 points
Question 79
1. A three-tier design includes a middle layer between the client and server that processes the
client requests and translates them into data access commands that can be understood and
carried out by the server.
True
False
Question 80
1. Middleware provides a transparent interface that enables system designers to integrate
dissimilar software and hardware.
True
False
5 points
Question 81
1. In contrast to a centralized system, a client/server design separates applications and data.
True
False
5 points
Question 82
1. An ASP provides applications, or access to applications, by charging a usage or subscription
fee.
True
False
5 points
Question 83
1. In a Web-based system, portal design provides an important link between the user and the
system, and poor design can weaken system effectiveness and value.
True
False
Question 84
1. A user’s computer does not perform processing or computing tasks with cloud computing
— the cloud does.
True
False
5 points
Question 85
1. TCP/IP consists of many individual protocols that control the handling of files, mail, and
Internet addresses, among others.
True
False
5 points
Question 86
1. One disadvantage of a hierarchical network is that if a business adds additional processing
levels, the network becomes more complex and expensive to operate and maintain.
True
False
5 points
Question 87
1. Visio is an example of a CASE tool that can help users plan, analyze, design, and implement
an information system.
True
False
Question 88
1. Various types of individual and site licenses are available from software vendors.
True
False
5 points
Question 89
1. Securing approvals from users throughout the design phase ensures that a systems analyst
does not have the major task of obtaining approvals at the end, keeps users involved with
the system’s development, and gives feedback about whether or not the analyst is on
target.
True
False
Question 1
1. To achieve better, faster, and less expensive methods of software development, ____
designed the Capability Maturity Model (CMM)®, which improves quality, reduces
development time, and cuts costs.
a. ISO (International Organization for Standardization)
b. CAIT (Center for the Application of Information Technologies)
c. ODBC (Open Database Connectivity)
d. SEI (Software Engineering Institute)
5 points
Question 2
1. Software ____ is a software development process that stresses solid design, effective
structure, accurate documentation, and careful testing.
a. analysis
b. synthesis
c. agility
d. engineering
5 points
Question 3
1. Application ____ is the process of constructing the programs and code modules that serves
as the building blocks of an information system.
a. development
b. analysis
c. connectivity
d. structuring
5 points
Question 4
1. ____ graphically represent the logic and interaction between program modules using a
series of symbols connected by arrows.
a. Training plans
b. Acceptance tests
c. Simulations
d. Flowcharts
5 points
Question 5
1. In a(n) ____ approach, the systems analyst defines the overall objectives of a system and
then breaks them down into subsystems and modules.
a. piloted
b. top-down
c. integrated
d. indexed
5 points
Question 6
1. A module that performs a single function or task has a high degree of ____, which is
desirable.
a. indexing
b. cohesion
c. resolution
d. piloting
5 points
Question 7
1. ____ describes the degree of interdependence among modules.
a. Resolution
b. Modularity
c. Coupling
d. Dynamism
5 points
Question 8
1. A class diagram includes the class ____, which represent the program logic.
a. events
b. methods
c. attributes
d. characters
5 points
Question 9
1. A class diagram includes the class ____, which describe the characteristics of objects in the
class.
a. attributes
b. events
c. keys
d. methods
5 points
Question 10
1. The objective of ____ testing is to identify and eliminate execution errors that could cause a
program to terminate abnormally, and logic errors that could have been missed during
desk checking.
a. system
b. user
c. integration
d. unit
5 points
Question 11
1. ____ is the process of reviewing the program code to spot logic errors, which produce
incorrect results.
a. Desk checking
b. Logic review
c. Code review
d. Results walkthrough
5 points
Question 12
1. Many organizations require a more formal type of desk checking called a structured
walkthrough, or ____ review.
a. code
b. integrated
c. design
d. interpolated
5 points
Question 13
1. In addition to analyzing logic and program code, a project team usually holds a session with
users, called a ____ walkthrough, to review the interface with a cross-section of people who
will work with the new system and ensure that all the necessary features have been
included.
a. testing
b. unit
c. user
d. design
5 points
Question 14
1. The testing of an individual module is called ____ testing.
a. index
b. modular
c. stub
d. unit
5 points
Question 15
1. A test plan consists of detailed procedures that specify ____.
a. how and when testing will be performed
b. what test data will be used
c. who will participate
d. all of the above
5 points
Question 16
1. Successful completion of system testing is the key to user and management approval,
which is why system tests sometimes are called ____.
a. implementation tests
b. acceptance tests
c. structure tests
d. modular tests
5 points
Question 17
1. Operations documentation ____.
a. describes the inputs, outputs, and processing logic for all program modules
b. describes a system’s functions and how they are implemented
c. consists of instructions and information to users who will interact with the system
d. contains all the information needed for processing and distributing online and
printed output
5 points
Question 18
1. User documentation ____.
a. contains all the information needed for processing and distributing printed output
b. describes a system’s functions and how they are implemented
c. consists of instructions and information to users who will interact with the system
d. describes the inputs, outputs, and processing logic for all program modules
5 points
Question 19
1. Unless a problem must be corrected, or modifications or enhancements must be made,
access to the operational environment is limited to ____ and must be strictly controlled.
a. systems analysts
b. users
c. programmers
d. all of the above
5 points
Question 20
1. Using a ____ strategy, knowledgeable users can be selected who then conduct sessions for
others.
a. structured walkthrough
b. train-the-trainer
c. desk checking
d. top-down design
5 points
Question 21
1. ____ costs include expenses for items such as supplies, equipment rental, and software
leases.
a. Operational
b. Adaptive
c. Maintenance
d. Corrective
5 points
Question 22
1. ____ activities include changing programs, procedures, or documentation to ensure correct
system performance; adapting the system to changing requirements; and making the
system operate more efficiently.
a. Programmatic
b. Procedural
c. Maintenance
d. Documented
5 points
Question 23
1. Corrective maintenance ____.
a. diagnoses and corrects errors in an operational system
b. requires analysis of areas where trouble is likely to occur in order to avoid problems
c. adds enhancements to an operational system and makes the system easier to use
d. involves changing an operational system to make it more efficient, reliable, or
maintainable
5 points
Question 24
1. Adaptive maintenance ____.
a. adds enhancements to an operational system and makes the system easier to use
b. diagnoses and corrects errors in an operational system
c. involves changing an operational system to make it more efficient, reliable, or
maintainable
d. requires analysis of areas where trouble is likely to occur in order to avoid problems
5 points
Question 25
1. Perfective maintenance ____.
a. adds enhancements to an operational system and makes the system easier to use
b. diagnoses and corrects errors in an operational system
c. involves changing an operational system to make it more efficient, reliable, or
maintainable
d. requires analysis of areas where trouble is likely to occur in order to avoid problems
5 points
Question 26
1. Perfective maintenance usually is cost effective ____ the system’s operational life.
a. early in
b. during the middle of
c. late in
d. all of the above
5 points
Question 27
1. Preventive maintenance ____.
a. requires analysis of areas where trouble is likely to occur in order to avoid problems
b. diagnoses and corrects errors in an operational system
c. involves changing an operational system to make it more efficient, reliable, or
maintainable
d. adds enhancements to an operational system and makes the system easier to use
5 points
Question 28
1. The ____ is responsible for assigning maintenance tasks to individuals or to a maintenance
team.
a. programmer
b. user
c. system administrator
d. systems review committee
5 points
Question 29
1. In a typical system, the initial version of the system is 1.0, and the release that includes the
first set of maintenance changes is version ____.
a. 1.0
b. 1.1
c. 2.0
d. 2.1
5 points
Question 30
1. The ____ is the configuration of a system documented at the beginning of the project and
consists of all necessary system requirements and design constraints.
a. allocated baseline
b. operational baseline
c. product baseline
d. functional baseline
5 points
Question 31
1. A ____ is a formal reference point that measures system characteristics at a specific time.
a. product point
b. feature line
c. baseline
d. risk point
5 points
Question 32
1. To measure system performance, companies use ____ testing, which uses a set of standard
tests on one system to compare its performance and capacity to that of other systems.
a. benchmark
b. allocation
c. threat
d. metric
5 points
Question 33
1. ____ include the volume of online data, the number of records accessed, and the number of
transactions processed in a given time period.
a. Risk assessments
b. Allocations
c. Metrics
d. Baselines
5 points
Question 34
1. ____ also can be used to measure the quality of IT support or services by measuring the time
from a user request for help to the resolution of the problem.
a. Throughput
b. Bandwidth
c. Response time
d. Turnaround time
5 points
Question 35
1. ____ protects information from unauthorized disclosure and safeguards privacy.
a. Integrity
b. Confidentiality
c. Availability
d. Risk management
5 points
Question 36
1. ____ prevents unauthorized users from creating, modifying, or deleting information.
a. Risk management
b. Confidentiality
c. Integrity
d. Availability
5 points
Question 37
1. ____ ensures that authorized users have timely and reliable access to necessary information.
a. Integrity
b. Confidentiality
c. Availability
d. Risk management
5 points
Question 38
1. Risk ____ develops safeguards that reduce risks and their impact.
a. management
b. control
c. assessment
d. identification
5 points
Question 39
1. Risk ____ measures risk likelihood and impact.
a. identification
b. management
c. assessment
d. control
5 points
Question 40
1. A ____ is an internal or external entity that could endanger an asset.
a. strike
b. menace
c. threat
d. malware
5 points
Question 41
1. ____ means that in risk control, nothing is done.
a. Avoidance
b. Acceptance
c. Transference
d. Mitigation
5 points
Question 42
1. ____ shifts the risk to another asset or party, such as an insurance company, in risk control.
a. Acceptance
b. Transference
c. Mitigation
d. Avoidance
5 points
Question 43
1. A(n) ____ is an unauthorized attempt to increase permission levels.
a. privilege escalation attack
b. denial-of-service attack
c. Trojan horse
d. identity management invasion
5 points
Question 44
1. Although programmers perform the actual coding, IT managers usually assign systems
analysts to work with them as part of a team effort.
True
False
5 points
Question 45
1. Using flowcharts, programmers can break large systems into subsystems that are easier to
understand and code.
True
False
5 points
Question 46
1. Structure charts are based on the DFDs constructed during data and process modeling and
object models that might have been developed.
True
False
5 points
Question 47
1. Compiling a program using a CASE tool or a language compiler detects syntax errors, which
are language grammar errors.
True
False
5 points
Question 48
1. Systems analysts prepare overall documentation, such as process descriptions and report
layouts, early in the SDLC.
True
False
5 points
Question 49
1. A systems analyst prepares most of the systems documentation during the systems
analysis and systems design phases.
True
False
5 points
Question 50
1. Effective online documentation is an important productivity tool because it empowers
users and reduces the time that IT staff members must spend in providing telephone, email, or face-to-face assistance.
True
False
5 points
Question 51
1. The post-implementation evaluation verifies that a new system meets specified
requirements, complies with user objectives, and produces the anticipated benefits.
True
False
5 points
Question 52
1. Whenever possible, people who were not directly involved in developing a system should
conduct the post-implementation evaluation.
True
False
5 points
Question 53
1. Post-implementation evaluation primarily is concerned with assessing the quality of a new
system.
True
False
5 points
Question 54
1. Successful, robust systems often need the most support because users want to learn the
features, try all the capabilities, and discover how the system can help them perform their
business functions.
True
False
5 points
Question 55
1. The systems support and security phase begins when a system becomes operational and
continues until the system reaches the end of its useful life.
True
False
5 points
Question 56
1. In addition to functioning as a valuable link between IT staff and users, a help desk is a
central contact point for all IT maintenance activities.
True
False
5 points
Question 57
1. The systems support and security phase is an important component of TCO (total cost of
ownership) because ongoing maintenance expenses can determine the economic life of a
system.
True
False
5 points
Question 58
1. The procedure for minor adaptive maintenance is similar to routine corrective
maintenance.
True
False
5 points
Question 59
1. Perfective maintenance can improve system reliability.
True
False
5 points
Question 60
1. When analysts learn different skills, the organization is more versatile and people can shift
to meeting changing business needs.
True
False
5 points
Question 61
1. IT staff members usually initiate requests for perfective and preventive maintenance.
True
False
5 points
Question 62
1. When corrective action cannot occur immediately, users appreciate feedback from the
system administrator and should be kept informed of any decisions or actions that affect
their maintenance requests.
True
False
5 points
Question 63
1. In many companies, the systems review committee separates maintenance requests from
new systems development requests when evaluating requests and setting priorities.
True
False
5 points
Question 64
1. With a release methodology, even when changes would improve system efficiency or user
productivity, the potential savings must wait until the next release date, which might
increase operational costs.
True
False
5 points
Question 65
1. As the first step in capacity planning, analysts develop a current model based on the
system’s present workload and performance specifications.
True
False
5 points
Question 66
1. In a PKE environment, each user on the network has a pair of keys: a public key and a
private key.
True
False
5 points
Question 67
1. Application security requires an understanding of services, hardening, application
permissions, input validation techniques, software patches and updates, and software logs.
True
False
5 points
Question 68
1. Retention periods can be a specific number of months or years, depending on legal
requirements and company policy.
True
False
Question 1
1. To know _____, ask the question, “Is this communication necessary, and what specific results
am I seeking?”
a. WHEN to speak
b. HOW to communicate effectively
c. WHY you are communicating
d. WHO your targets are
5 points
Question 2
1. Knowing WHAT is expected and when to go into detail is directly related to knowing _____.
a. WHO your targets are
b. HOW to communicate effectively
c. WHERE to communicate best
d. WHEN to speak and when to remain silent
5 points
Question 3
1. In a report, the findings section is used to _____.
a. present the best system alternative, with a brief explanation
b. describe the major conclusions reached
c. contain a large number of supporting documents
d. summarize the entire project in several paragraphs
5 points
Question 4
1. In a report, the recommendations section is used to _____.
a. contain a large number of supporting documents
b. present the best system alternative, with a brief explanation
c. summarize the entire project in several paragraphs
d. describe the major conclusions reached
5 points
Question 5
1. When preparing a slide presentation, try to follow the rule often called the 7 by 7 rule: _____.
a. at least seven items per slide, and at least seven words per item
b. at least seven topics per slide, and at least seven items per topic
c. no more than seven topics per slide, and no more than seven items per topic
d. no more than seven items per slide, and no more than seven words per item
5 points
Question 6
1. Selecting a CASE tool depends on the _____.
a. type of project and its size and scope
b. possible budgetary and time constraints
c. preferences and experience of the system development team
d. all of the above
5 points
Question 7
1. _____ allows an existing application to be examined and broken down into a series of
diagrams, structure charts, and, in some cases, source code.
a. Reverse engineering
b. Forward engineering
c. Code generating
d. Screen generating
5 points
Question 8
1. With a report generator, sample fields can be input to create a _____ for users to review and
approve.
a. mock-up report
b. final report
c. code report
d. summary report
5 points
Question 9
1. _____can model networks, business processes, and many types of special diagrams.
a. Microsoft Visio
b. Oracle Designer
c. Visible Analyst
d. System Architect
5 points
Question 10
1. ____ means that the projected benefits of a proposed system outweigh the estimated costs.
a. Technical feasibility
b. Operational feasibility
c. Economic feasibility
d. Schedule feasibility
5 points
Question 11
1. The cost of customer dissatisfaction, lower employee morale, and reduced information
availability are examples of _____.
a. tangible costs
b. fixed costs
c. intangible costs
d. variable costs
5 points
Question 12
1. With a no charge method, indirect IT department costs are _____.
a. varied from month to month, depending on a department’s use of resources
b. allocated to other departments based on user-oriented activity
c. treated as general organizational costs and not charged to other departments
d. divided among all departments in the form of a set monthly charge
5 points
Question 13
1. With a fixed charge method, indirect IT department costs are _____.
a. divided among all departments in the form of a set monthly charge
b. allocated to other departments based on user-oriented activity
c. varied from month to month, depending on a department’s use of resources
d. treated as general organizational costs and not charged to other departments
5 points
Question 14
1. With a variable charge method based on resource usage, indirect IT department costs are
_____.
a. allocated to other departments based on user-oriented activity
b. varied from month to month, depending on a department’s use of resources
c. divided among all departments in the form of a set monthly charge
d. treated as general organizational costs and not charged to other departments
5 points
Question 15
1. Cost-benefit analysis is performed _____ to determine the economic feasibility of an
information system project and to compare alternative solutions.
a. throughout the SDLC
b. at the end of the SDLC
c. at the beginning of the SDLC
d. in the middle of the SDLC
5 points
Question 16
1. The _____ of a future dollar is the amount of money that, when invested today at a specified
interest rate, grows to exactly one dollar at a certain point in the future.
a. probable value
b. present value
c. past value
d. projected value
5 points
Question 17
1. Search engines use a specialized computer program called a _____ that travels from site to
site indexing, or cataloging, the contents of the pages based on keywords.
a. portal
b. thread
c. digest
d. spider
5 points
Question 18
1. Many search engines allow people to use various combinations of _____ to improve their
search success.
a. sponsored links
b. logical operators
c. list servers
d. instant messages
5 points
Question 19
1. When the _____ logical operator is used to combine keywords, a search engine will retrieve
all results containing either keyword.
a. IF
b. NOT
c. OR
d. AND
5 points
Question 20
1. A(n) ____ is a Web-based log, or journal.
a. aggregator
b. channel
c. blog
d. digest
5 points
Question 21
1. Disadvantages of online learning include all of the following EXCEPT _____.
a. online learning lacks the face-to-face component that some learners find necessary
b. the interface in an online learning experience may be a limitation, slowing processing
performance
c. online learning options generally are more expensive than traditional face-to-face
learning
d. online learning may not be the best option if the content is complicated or unfamiliar
5 points
Question 22
1. The why, who, what, when, and how of communications are important questions that must
be answered before you communicate.
True
False
5 points
Question 23
1. E-mail usually is less formal than other written communication, but rules of good grammar,
correct spelling, and clear writing still must be followed.
True
False
5 points
Question 24
1. Although many authors use a more conversational style for e-mail, users should be aware
of some simple rules of netiquette and remember that e-mail messages often are forwarded
to other recipients or groups and are as important as any other form of written
communications.
True
False
5 points
Question 25
1. In a report, the executive summary is used to summarize an entire project, including
recommendations, in several paragraphs.
True
False
5 points
Question 26
1. When you have a large number of supporting documents such as questionnaires or
sampling results, you should put those items in the data section located at the end of the
document.
True
False
5 points
Question 27
1. A presentation should be planned in three stages: the introduction, the information, and
the summary.
True
False
5 points
Question 28
1. When preparing a presentation, the first step (and perhaps the most important) is to
prepare an overall outline that will be the foundation of the presentation.
True
False
5 points
Question 29
1. When preparing for a presentation, try to anticipate the questions an audience will ask so a
response can be prepared ahead of time.
True
False
5 points
Question 30
1. CASE tools can reduce costs, speed up development, and provide comprehensive
documentation that can be used for future maintenance or enhancements.
True
False
5 points
Question 31
1. Modern programming languages, such as Visual Basic and Java, are called non-procedural,
or event-driven, languages because instead of writing a series of sequential instructions, a
programmer defines the actions that the program must perform when certain events occur.
True
False
5 points
Question 32
1. Once a data element has been defined in the repository, it can be accessed and used by
processes and other information systems.
True
False
5 points
Question 33
1. Visual Studio 2010 includes various application development tools that are specifically
designed to support Microsoft’s Web-based application development strategy.
True
False
5 points
Question 34
1. Each systems development approach has a set of tools that work especially well for that
method.
True
False
5 points
Question 35
1. Widespread use of object-oriented languages has spurred interest in O-O CASE tools, which
can provide a seamless development sequence from planning to actual coding.
True
False
5 points
Question 36
1. It seems clear that CASE tools will continue to evolve and become more powerful.
True
False
5 points
Question 37
1. System developers will sometimes choose simpler, low-tech methods and techniques as
modeling tools.
True
False
5 points
Question 38
1. Direct costs are costs that can be associated with the development of a specific system.
True
False
5 points
Question 39
1. Indirect costs, or overhead expenses, cannot be attributed to the development of a
particular information system.
True
False
5 points
Question 40
1. Fixed costs are costs that are relatively constant and do not depend on a level of activity or
effort.
True
False
5 points
Question 41
1. Variable costs are costs that vary depending on the level of activity.
True
False
5 points
Question 42
1. Positive benefits increase revenues, improve services, or otherwise contribute to an
organization as a direct result of a new information system.
True
False
5 points
Question 43
1. Cost-avoidance benefits refer to expenses that would be necessary if a new system is not
installed.
True
False
5 points
Question 44
1. When conducting a payback analysis, the time it takes for the accumulated benefits of an
information system to equal the accumulated costs of developing and operating the system
are calculated.
True
False
5 points
Question 45
1.
ROI (return on investment) measures the overall rate of return for a total period, and
annual return rates vary considerably.
True
False
5 points
Question 46
1. Google is an indexed search engine that organizes and ranks the results of a search.
True
False
5 points
Question 47
1. In implied Boolean logic, symbols are used to represent Boolean operators, such as a plus
sign (+) for AND, and a minus sign (-) for NOT.
True
False
5 points
Question 48
1. Most search engines provide an advanced search feature that offers a fill-in form.
True
False
5 points
Question 49
1. One approach to access the invisible Web is to use a search engine to locate a portal, or an
entrance to a searchable database by including the word, database, as a required search
term.
True
False
5 points
Question 50
1. Social networking sites such as MySpace, Facebook, Twitter, and LinkedIn have gained
enormous popularity in recent years.
True
False
5 points
Question 51
1. In many cases, FAQs describe the particular netiquette, or Web guidelines for protocol and
courtesy, that exist on a particular newsgroup or site.
True
False
5 points
Question 52
1. Newsletters are a convenient way to keep current on topics of interest.
True
False
5 points
Question 53
1. Web publishers use RSS feeds to distribute news and updates to subscribers, who can read
the content with software called an RSS reader.
True
False
5 points
Question 54
1. A computer called a list server directs e-mail to people who subscribe to, or join, a mailing
list.
True
False
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