Question 1 1. In older systems, often the user interface mainly consisted of ____-control screens that allowed a user to send commands to the system. a. physical b. input c. process d. command 5 points Question 2 1. ____ describes the relationship between computers and the people who use them to perform business-related tasks. a. UI b. PCI c. PI d. HCI 5 points Question 3 1. A(n) ____ is a user interface that allows users to interact with graphical objects and pointing devices. a. HCI b. GUI c. UI d. PCI 5 points Question 4 1. Good interface design is based partly on ____, which focuses on how an interface can be made attractive and easy to use. a. output security b. aesthetics c. interface technology d. ergonomics Question 5 1. Good interface design is based partly on ____, which provides the operational structure required to carry out the design objectives. a. aesthetics b. output security c. ergonomics d. interface technology 5 points Question 6 1. The ____ is a control feature at the top of a data entry screen that displays the main menu options. a. control bar b. menu bar c. radio bar d. menu box 5 points Question 7 1. A(n) ____ displays only those records that meet a specific condition or conditions. a. detail report b. exception report c. summary report d. all of the above Question 8 1. For upper-level managers who often want to see total figures and do not need supporting details, a(n) ____ is appropriate. a. detail report b. exception report c. summary report d. all of the above 5 points Question 9 1. The concept that the quality of the output is only as good as the quality of the input, which sometimes is known as ____, is familiar to IT professionals, who recognize that the best time to avoid problems is when data is entered. a. bad input, bad output (BIBO) b. garbage in, garbage out (GIGO) c. weak hand, weak hold (WHWH) d. poor start, poor finish (PSPF) 5 points Question 10 1. On a source document, the ____ contains codes, identification information, numbers, and dates that are used for storing completed forms. a. totals zone b. control zone c. heading zone d. authorization zone Question 11 1. On a source document, the main part of the form, called the ____, usually takes up at least half of the space on the form and contains captions and areas for entering variable data. a. body zone b. instruction zone c. authorization zone d. heading zone 5 points Question 12 1. When designing data entry screens, provide an on-screen instruction to let users know the date format, and provide an example if the user must enter ____. a. clones b. masks c. verifiers d. separators 5 points Question 13 1. An existence check is a data validation check that ____. a. is used for mandatory data items b. identifies values that are questionable, but not necessarily wrong c. is performed on two or more fields to ensure that they are consistent or reasonable when considered together d. tests data items to verify that they fall between a specified minimum and maximum value Question 14 1. A range check is a data validation check that ____. a. identifies values that are questionable, but not necessarily wrong b. tests data items to verify that they fall between a specified minimum and maximum value c. is used for mandatory data items d. is performed on two or more fields to ensure that they are consistent or reasonable when considered together 5 points Question 15 1. A reasonableness check is a data validation check that ____. a. identifies values that are questionable, but not necessarily wrong b. tests data items to verify that they fall between a specified minimum and maximum value c. is used for mandatory data items d. is performed on two or more fields to ensure that they are consistent or reasonable when considered together 5 points Question 16 1. A combination check is a data validation check that ____. a. identifies values that are questionable, but not necessarily wrong b. tests data items to verify that they fall between a specified minimum and maximum value c. is performed on two or more fields to ensure that they are consistent or reasonable when considered together d. is used for mandatory data items Question 17 1. In most organizations, the ____ department is responsible for output control and security measures. a. police b. security c. IT d. finance 5 points Question 18 1. Because every piece of information should be traceable back to the input data that produced it, a(n) ____ trail must be provided that records the source of each data item and when it entered the system. a. control b. audit c. source d. index 5 points Question 19 1. A data ____, which is a framework for organizing and storing data, consists of one or more files or tables. a. integral b. index c. structure d. roster Question 20 1. One problem in a file processing environment is ____, which means that data common to two or more information systems is stored in several places. a. referential integrity b. rigid data structure c. data redundancy d. data integrity 5 points Question 21 1. In a typical file processing environment, ____ problems can occur if updates are not applied in every file. a. referential integrity b. data redundancy c. rigid data structure d. data integrity 5 points Question 22 1. In a file-oriented information system, a transaction file ____. a. is a temporary file created by an information system for a single task b. is created and saved for backup and recovery purposes c. stores records that contain day-to-day business and operational data d. stores relatively permanent data about an entity Question 23 1. In a file-oriented information system, a work file ____. a. stores relatively permanent data about an entity b. stores records that contain day-to-day business and operational data c. is created and saved for backup and recovery purposes d. is a temporary file created by an information system for a single task 5 points Question 24 1. A(n) ____ is a collection of tools, features, and interfaces that enables users to add, update, manage, access, and analyze the contents of a database. a. HCI b. scale set c. DBMS d. RMS 5 points Question 25 1. ____ means that a system can be expanded, modified, or downsized easily to meet the rapidly changing needs of a business enterprise. a. Compatibility b. Functionality c. Cardinality d. Scalability Question 26 1. A(n) ____, which is used to access stored data, allows a user to specify a task without specifying how the task will be accomplished. a. query language b. machine language c. markup language d. assembly language 5 points Question 27 1. The complete definition of a database, including descriptions of all fields, tables, and relationships, is called a(n) ____. a. connective b. collective c. exchange d. schema 5 points Question 28 1. ____ is an industry-standard protocol that makes it possible for software from different vendors to interact and exchange data a. JDBC b. JVC c. OEC d. ODBC Question 29 1. JDBC enables ____ applications to exchange data with any database that uses SQL statements and is compliant with the standard. a. Java b. HTML c. Web d. Perl 5 points Question 30 1. A ____ is a text document written in HTML. a. Web browser b. Web site c. Web server d. Web page 5 points Question 31 1. HTML uses formatting codes called ____, which specify how the text and visual elements on a Web page will be displayed in a Web browser. a. blocks b. entities c. schema d. tags Question 32 1. To bridge the gap between a database and the Web and enable data to be viewed and updated, it is necessary to use ____, which is software that integrates different applications and allows them to exchange data. a. middleware b. hardware c. freeware d. shareware 5 points Question 33 1. During the systems design phase, ____ fields are used to organize, access, and maintain data structures. a. glossary b. tabular c. key d. content 5 points Question 34 1. One type of validity check, called ____ integrity, is a set of rules that avoids data inconsistency and quality problems. a. combinatorial b. candidate c. referential d. foreign Question 35 1. A(n) ____ is a graphical model of an information system that depicts the relationships among system entities. a. ERD b. ODBC c. SQL d. OCE 5 points Question 36 1. ____ is the process of creating table designs by assigning specific fields or attributes to each table in a database. a. Encryption b. Standardization c. Encapsulation d. Normalization 5 points Question 37 1. Some abbreviation codes are called ____ codes because they use a specific combination of letters that are easy to remember. a. rhapsodic b. mnemonic c. sequence d. harmonic Question 38 1. When a system reads a physical record, it loads the data from storage into a ____, which is a segment of computer memory. a. client b. table c. password d. buffer 5 points Question 39 1. Most date formats now are based on the model established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO), which requires a format of ____. a. two digits for the year, two for the month, and two for the day (YYMMDD) b. four digits for the year, two for the month, and four for the day (YYYYMMDDDD) c. four digits for the year, two for the month, and two for the day (YYYYMMDD) d. two digits for the year, four for the month, and two for the day (YYMMMMDD) 5 points Question 40 1. ____ is the process of converting readable data into unreadable characters to prevent unauthorized access to the data. a. Encryption b. Normalization c. Encapsulation d. Standardization Question 41 1. In the event of a file catastrophe, ____ can be used to restore the file or database to its current state at the time of the last backup. a. crow’s foot notation b. standard notation format c. recovery procedures d. audit log files 5 points Question 42 1. Every information system involves ____. a. data storage and access methods b. application programs to handle the programming logic c. an interface that allows users to interact with the system d. all of the above 5 points Question 43 1. A system design where the server performs all the processing is described as ____. a. mainframe architecture b. workstation architecture c. thin architecture d. thick architecture Question 44 1. In a(n) ____ design, the remote user’s keystrokes are transmitted to the mainframe, which responds by sending screen output back to the user’s screen. a. centralized b. open c. closed d. distributed 5 points Question 45 1. In an n-tier system, special utility software called ____ enables the tiers to communicate and pass data back and forth. a. middleware b. groupware c. centralware d. shareware 5 points Question 46 1. A ____ is an entrance to a multifunction Web site. a. DDBMS b. batch link c. portal d. topology Question 47 1. In the OSI (Open System Interconnection) model, the application layer ____. a. defines specific methods of transmitting data over the physical layer b. defines control structures that manage the communications link between computers c. contains physical components that carry data d. provides network services requested by a local workstation 5 points Question 48 1. In the OSI (Open System Interconnection) model, the presentation layer ____. a. contains physical components that carry data b. provides reliable data flow and error recovery c. defines network addresses and determines how data is routed over the network d. assures that data is uniformly structured and formatted for network transmission 5 points Question 49 1. In all cases, a network must use a ____, which is a set of standards that govern network data transmission. a. protocol b. router c. hub d. switch Question 50 1. A popular network protocol is ____, which today is the backbone of the Internet. a. FTP b. Telnet c. TCP/IP d. all of the above 5 points Question 51 1. A disadvantage of a bus network is that ____. a. performance can decline as more users and devices are added b. devices cannot be attached or detached without disturbing the rest of the network c. failure in one workstation necessarily affects other workstations on the network d. all of the above 5 points Question 52 1. A ____ resembles a circle of computers that communicate with each other. a. bus network b. hierarchical network c. star network d. ring network Question 53 1. A(n) ____ is relatively inexpensive to install and is well-suited to workgroups and users who are not anchored to a specific desk or location. a. WLAN b. MLAN c. LAN d. XLAN 5 points Question 54 1. In its wireless configuration, the ____ point is similar to a hub in the LAN star topology, except it provides network services to wireless clients instead of wired clients. a. linkage b. hub c. access d. network 5 points Question 55 1. Most business WLANs use access points and do not utilize the ____. a. DSS b. ISS c. BSS d. ESS Question 56 1. The ____ was formed in 1999 to certify interoperability of wireless network products based on IEEE 802.11 specifications. a. Wireless Network b. Wi-Fi Alliance c. W3C d. NSF 5 points Question 57 1. A form of wireless transmission called ____ is very popular for short-distance wireless communication that does not require high power. a. USB b. Mbps c. RFID d. Bluetooth 5 points Question 58 1. The ____ section in a typical system design specification contains the complete design for a new system, including the user interface, outputs, inputs, files, databases, and network specifications. a. System Components b. Time and Cost Estimates c. Executive Summary d. Implementation Requirements Question 59 1. The ____ section in a typical system design specification describes the constraints, or conditions, affecting a system, including any requirements that involve operations, hardware, systems software, or security. a. System Components b. Executive Summary c. Time and Cost Estimates d. System Environment 5 points Question 60 1. To develop a user-centered interface, a designer must learn to think like a user and see the system through a user’s eyes. True False 5 points Question 61 1. When designing an interface, to provide features that promote efficiency use default values if the majority of values in a field are the same. True False 5 points Question 62 1. Either a page header or a page footer, which appears at the bottom of a page, is used to display the report title and the page number. True False Question 63 1. Every page in a report should include a page header, which appears at the top of the page and includes the column headings that identify the data. True False 5 points Question 64 1. A major challenge of Web-based form design is that most people read and interact differently with on-screen information compared to paper forms. True False 5 points Question 65 1. When designing data entry screens, provide users with an opportunity to confirm the accuracy of input data before entering it. True False 5 points Question 66 1. Web pages are stored on a Web server, which is a computer that receives requests and makes Web pages available to users. True False Question 67 1. Three main types of relationships that can exist between entities are a one-to-one relationship, abbreviated 1:1; a one-to-many relationship, abbreviated 1:M; and a many-tomany relationship, abbreviated M:N. True False 5 points Question 68 1. In an M:N relationship, the two entities are linked by an event or transaction called an associative entity, which has its own set of attributes and characteristics. True False 5 points Question 69 1. A table design specifies the fields and identifies the primary key in a particular table or file. True False 5 points Question 70 1. Field X is functionally dependent on field Y if the value of field X depends on the value of field Y. True False Question 71 1. A popular rule of thumb is that a design is in 3NF if every nonkey field depends on the key, the whole key, and nothing but the key. True False 5 points Question 72 1. Normal forms beyond 3NF exist, but they rarely are used in business-oriented systems. True False 5 points Question 73 1. Relational databases can run on many platforms, including personal computers. True False 5 points Question 74 1. A data warehouse allows users to specify certain dimensions, or characteristics. True False 5 points Question 75 1. The basic elements of logical data are alphabetic or numeric characters, such as the letter A or the number 9. True False Question 76 1. To protect stored data, users can be asked to furnish a proper user ID and password to access a file or database. True False 5 points Question 77 1. Implementation of early client/server systems was expensive because clients needed more powerful hardware and software to handle shared processing tasks. True False 5 points Question 78 1. Today, client/server architecture is the dominant form of systems design, using Internet protocols and traditional network models. True False 5 points Question 79 1. A three-tier design includes a middle layer between the client and server that processes the client requests and translates them into data access commands that can be understood and carried out by the server. True False Question 80 1. Middleware provides a transparent interface that enables system designers to integrate dissimilar software and hardware. True False 5 points Question 81 1. In contrast to a centralized system, a client/server design separates applications and data. True False 5 points Question 82 1. An ASP provides applications, or access to applications, by charging a usage or subscription fee. True False 5 points Question 83 1. In a Web-based system, portal design provides an important link between the user and the system, and poor design can weaken system effectiveness and value. True False Question 84 1. A user’s computer does not perform processing or computing tasks with cloud computing — the cloud does. True False 5 points Question 85 1. TCP/IP consists of many individual protocols that control the handling of files, mail, and Internet addresses, among others. True False 5 points Question 86 1. One disadvantage of a hierarchical network is that if a business adds additional processing levels, the network becomes more complex and expensive to operate and maintain. True False 5 points Question 87 1. Visio is an example of a CASE tool that can help users plan, analyze, design, and implement an information system. True False Question 88 1. Various types of individual and site licenses are available from software vendors. True False 5 points Question 89 1. Securing approvals from users throughout the design phase ensures that a systems analyst does not have the major task of obtaining approvals at the end, keeps users involved with the system’s development, and gives feedback about whether or not the analyst is on target. True False Question 1 1. To achieve better, faster, and less expensive methods of software development, ____ designed the Capability Maturity Model (CMM)®, which improves quality, reduces development time, and cuts costs. a. ISO (International Organization for Standardization) b. CAIT (Center for the Application of Information Technologies) c. ODBC (Open Database Connectivity) d. SEI (Software Engineering Institute) 5 points Question 2 1. Software ____ is a software development process that stresses solid design, effective structure, accurate documentation, and careful testing. a. analysis b. synthesis c. agility d. engineering 5 points Question 3 1. Application ____ is the process of constructing the programs and code modules that serves as the building blocks of an information system. a. development b. analysis c. connectivity d. structuring 5 points Question 4 1. ____ graphically represent the logic and interaction between program modules using a series of symbols connected by arrows. a. Training plans b. Acceptance tests c. Simulations d. Flowcharts 5 points Question 5 1. In a(n) ____ approach, the systems analyst defines the overall objectives of a system and then breaks them down into subsystems and modules. a. piloted b. top-down c. integrated d. indexed 5 points Question 6 1. A module that performs a single function or task has a high degree of ____, which is desirable. a. indexing b. cohesion c. resolution d. piloting 5 points Question 7 1. ____ describes the degree of interdependence among modules. a. Resolution b. Modularity c. Coupling d. Dynamism 5 points Question 8 1. A class diagram includes the class ____, which represent the program logic. a. events b. methods c. attributes d. characters 5 points Question 9 1. A class diagram includes the class ____, which describe the characteristics of objects in the class. a. attributes b. events c. keys d. methods 5 points Question 10 1. The objective of ____ testing is to identify and eliminate execution errors that could cause a program to terminate abnormally, and logic errors that could have been missed during desk checking. a. system b. user c. integration d. unit 5 points Question 11 1. ____ is the process of reviewing the program code to spot logic errors, which produce incorrect results. a. Desk checking b. Logic review c. Code review d. Results walkthrough 5 points Question 12 1. Many organizations require a more formal type of desk checking called a structured walkthrough, or ____ review. a. code b. integrated c. design d. interpolated 5 points Question 13 1. In addition to analyzing logic and program code, a project team usually holds a session with users, called a ____ walkthrough, to review the interface with a cross-section of people who will work with the new system and ensure that all the necessary features have been included. a. testing b. unit c. user d. design 5 points Question 14 1. The testing of an individual module is called ____ testing. a. index b. modular c. stub d. unit 5 points Question 15 1. A test plan consists of detailed procedures that specify ____. a. how and when testing will be performed b. what test data will be used c. who will participate d. all of the above 5 points Question 16 1. Successful completion of system testing is the key to user and management approval, which is why system tests sometimes are called ____. a. implementation tests b. acceptance tests c. structure tests d. modular tests 5 points Question 17 1. Operations documentation ____. a. describes the inputs, outputs, and processing logic for all program modules b. describes a system’s functions and how they are implemented c. consists of instructions and information to users who will interact with the system d. contains all the information needed for processing and distributing online and printed output 5 points Question 18 1. User documentation ____. a. contains all the information needed for processing and distributing printed output b. describes a system’s functions and how they are implemented c. consists of instructions and information to users who will interact with the system d. describes the inputs, outputs, and processing logic for all program modules 5 points Question 19 1. Unless a problem must be corrected, or modifications or enhancements must be made, access to the operational environment is limited to ____ and must be strictly controlled. a. systems analysts b. users c. programmers d. all of the above 5 points Question 20 1. Using a ____ strategy, knowledgeable users can be selected who then conduct sessions for others. a. structured walkthrough b. train-the-trainer c. desk checking d. top-down design 5 points Question 21 1. ____ costs include expenses for items such as supplies, equipment rental, and software leases. a. Operational b. Adaptive c. Maintenance d. Corrective 5 points Question 22 1. ____ activities include changing programs, procedures, or documentation to ensure correct system performance; adapting the system to changing requirements; and making the system operate more efficiently. a. Programmatic b. Procedural c. Maintenance d. Documented 5 points Question 23 1. Corrective maintenance ____. a. diagnoses and corrects errors in an operational system b. requires analysis of areas where trouble is likely to occur in order to avoid problems c. adds enhancements to an operational system and makes the system easier to use d. involves changing an operational system to make it more efficient, reliable, or maintainable 5 points Question 24 1. Adaptive maintenance ____. a. adds enhancements to an operational system and makes the system easier to use b. diagnoses and corrects errors in an operational system c. involves changing an operational system to make it more efficient, reliable, or maintainable d. requires analysis of areas where trouble is likely to occur in order to avoid problems 5 points Question 25 1. Perfective maintenance ____. a. adds enhancements to an operational system and makes the system easier to use b. diagnoses and corrects errors in an operational system c. involves changing an operational system to make it more efficient, reliable, or maintainable d. requires analysis of areas where trouble is likely to occur in order to avoid problems 5 points Question 26 1. Perfective maintenance usually is cost effective ____ the system’s operational life. a. early in b. during the middle of c. late in d. all of the above 5 points Question 27 1. Preventive maintenance ____. a. requires analysis of areas where trouble is likely to occur in order to avoid problems b. diagnoses and corrects errors in an operational system c. involves changing an operational system to make it more efficient, reliable, or maintainable d. adds enhancements to an operational system and makes the system easier to use 5 points Question 28 1. The ____ is responsible for assigning maintenance tasks to individuals or to a maintenance team. a. programmer b. user c. system administrator d. systems review committee 5 points Question 29 1. In a typical system, the initial version of the system is 1.0, and the release that includes the first set of maintenance changes is version ____. a. 1.0 b. 1.1 c. 2.0 d. 2.1 5 points Question 30 1. The ____ is the configuration of a system documented at the beginning of the project and consists of all necessary system requirements and design constraints. a. allocated baseline b. operational baseline c. product baseline d. functional baseline 5 points Question 31 1. A ____ is a formal reference point that measures system characteristics at a specific time. a. product point b. feature line c. baseline d. risk point 5 points Question 32 1. To measure system performance, companies use ____ testing, which uses a set of standard tests on one system to compare its performance and capacity to that of other systems. a. benchmark b. allocation c. threat d. metric 5 points Question 33 1. ____ include the volume of online data, the number of records accessed, and the number of transactions processed in a given time period. a. Risk assessments b. Allocations c. Metrics d. Baselines 5 points Question 34 1. ____ also can be used to measure the quality of IT support or services by measuring the time from a user request for help to the resolution of the problem. a. Throughput b. Bandwidth c. Response time d. Turnaround time 5 points Question 35 1. ____ protects information from unauthorized disclosure and safeguards privacy. a. Integrity b. Confidentiality c. Availability d. Risk management 5 points Question 36 1. ____ prevents unauthorized users from creating, modifying, or deleting information. a. Risk management b. Confidentiality c. Integrity d. Availability 5 points Question 37 1. ____ ensures that authorized users have timely and reliable access to necessary information. a. Integrity b. Confidentiality c. Availability d. Risk management 5 points Question 38 1. Risk ____ develops safeguards that reduce risks and their impact. a. management b. control c. assessment d. identification 5 points Question 39 1. Risk ____ measures risk likelihood and impact. a. identification b. management c. assessment d. control 5 points Question 40 1. A ____ is an internal or external entity that could endanger an asset. a. strike b. menace c. threat d. malware 5 points Question 41 1. ____ means that in risk control, nothing is done. a. Avoidance b. Acceptance c. Transference d. Mitigation 5 points Question 42 1. ____ shifts the risk to another asset or party, such as an insurance company, in risk control. a. Acceptance b. Transference c. Mitigation d. Avoidance 5 points Question 43 1. A(n) ____ is an unauthorized attempt to increase permission levels. a. privilege escalation attack b. denial-of-service attack c. Trojan horse d. identity management invasion 5 points Question 44 1. Although programmers perform the actual coding, IT managers usually assign systems analysts to work with them as part of a team effort. True False 5 points Question 45 1. Using flowcharts, programmers can break large systems into subsystems that are easier to understand and code. True False 5 points Question 46 1. Structure charts are based on the DFDs constructed during data and process modeling and object models that might have been developed. True False 5 points Question 47 1. Compiling a program using a CASE tool or a language compiler detects syntax errors, which are language grammar errors. True False 5 points Question 48 1. Systems analysts prepare overall documentation, such as process descriptions and report layouts, early in the SDLC. True False 5 points Question 49 1. A systems analyst prepares most of the systems documentation during the systems analysis and systems design phases. True False 5 points Question 50 1. Effective online documentation is an important productivity tool because it empowers users and reduces the time that IT staff members must spend in providing telephone, email, or face-to-face assistance. True False 5 points Question 51 1. The post-implementation evaluation verifies that a new system meets specified requirements, complies with user objectives, and produces the anticipated benefits. True False 5 points Question 52 1. Whenever possible, people who were not directly involved in developing a system should conduct the post-implementation evaluation. True False 5 points Question 53 1. Post-implementation evaluation primarily is concerned with assessing the quality of a new system. True False 5 points Question 54 1. Successful, robust systems often need the most support because users want to learn the features, try all the capabilities, and discover how the system can help them perform their business functions. True False 5 points Question 55 1. The systems support and security phase begins when a system becomes operational and continues until the system reaches the end of its useful life. True False 5 points Question 56 1. In addition to functioning as a valuable link between IT staff and users, a help desk is a central contact point for all IT maintenance activities. True False 5 points Question 57 1. The systems support and security phase is an important component of TCO (total cost of ownership) because ongoing maintenance expenses can determine the economic life of a system. True False 5 points Question 58 1. The procedure for minor adaptive maintenance is similar to routine corrective maintenance. True False 5 points Question 59 1. Perfective maintenance can improve system reliability. True False 5 points Question 60 1. When analysts learn different skills, the organization is more versatile and people can shift to meeting changing business needs. True False 5 points Question 61 1. IT staff members usually initiate requests for perfective and preventive maintenance. True False 5 points Question 62 1. When corrective action cannot occur immediately, users appreciate feedback from the system administrator and should be kept informed of any decisions or actions that affect their maintenance requests. True False 5 points Question 63 1. In many companies, the systems review committee separates maintenance requests from new systems development requests when evaluating requests and setting priorities. True False 5 points Question 64 1. With a release methodology, even when changes would improve system efficiency or user productivity, the potential savings must wait until the next release date, which might increase operational costs. True False 5 points Question 65 1. As the first step in capacity planning, analysts develop a current model based on the system’s present workload and performance specifications. True False 5 points Question 66 1. In a PKE environment, each user on the network has a pair of keys: a public key and a private key. True False 5 points Question 67 1. Application security requires an understanding of services, hardening, application permissions, input validation techniques, software patches and updates, and software logs. True False 5 points Question 68 1. Retention periods can be a specific number of months or years, depending on legal requirements and company policy. True False Question 1 1. To know _____, ask the question, “Is this communication necessary, and what specific results am I seeking?” a. WHEN to speak b. HOW to communicate effectively c. WHY you are communicating d. WHO your targets are 5 points Question 2 1. Knowing WHAT is expected and when to go into detail is directly related to knowing _____. a. WHO your targets are b. HOW to communicate effectively c. WHERE to communicate best d. WHEN to speak and when to remain silent 5 points Question 3 1. In a report, the findings section is used to _____. a. present the best system alternative, with a brief explanation b. describe the major conclusions reached c. contain a large number of supporting documents d. summarize the entire project in several paragraphs 5 points Question 4 1. In a report, the recommendations section is used to _____. a. contain a large number of supporting documents b. present the best system alternative, with a brief explanation c. summarize the entire project in several paragraphs d. describe the major conclusions reached 5 points Question 5 1. When preparing a slide presentation, try to follow the rule often called the 7 by 7 rule: _____. a. at least seven items per slide, and at least seven words per item b. at least seven topics per slide, and at least seven items per topic c. no more than seven topics per slide, and no more than seven items per topic d. no more than seven items per slide, and no more than seven words per item 5 points Question 6 1. Selecting a CASE tool depends on the _____. a. type of project and its size and scope b. possible budgetary and time constraints c. preferences and experience of the system development team d. all of the above 5 points Question 7 1. _____ allows an existing application to be examined and broken down into a series of diagrams, structure charts, and, in some cases, source code. a. Reverse engineering b. Forward engineering c. Code generating d. Screen generating 5 points Question 8 1. With a report generator, sample fields can be input to create a _____ for users to review and approve. a. mock-up report b. final report c. code report d. summary report 5 points Question 9 1. _____can model networks, business processes, and many types of special diagrams. a. Microsoft Visio b. Oracle Designer c. Visible Analyst d. System Architect 5 points Question 10 1. ____ means that the projected benefits of a proposed system outweigh the estimated costs. a. Technical feasibility b. Operational feasibility c. Economic feasibility d. Schedule feasibility 5 points Question 11 1. The cost of customer dissatisfaction, lower employee morale, and reduced information availability are examples of _____. a. tangible costs b. fixed costs c. intangible costs d. variable costs 5 points Question 12 1. With a no charge method, indirect IT department costs are _____. a. varied from month to month, depending on a department’s use of resources b. allocated to other departments based on user-oriented activity c. treated as general organizational costs and not charged to other departments d. divided among all departments in the form of a set monthly charge 5 points Question 13 1. With a fixed charge method, indirect IT department costs are _____. a. divided among all departments in the form of a set monthly charge b. allocated to other departments based on user-oriented activity c. varied from month to month, depending on a department’s use of resources d. treated as general organizational costs and not charged to other departments 5 points Question 14 1. With a variable charge method based on resource usage, indirect IT department costs are _____. a. allocated to other departments based on user-oriented activity b. varied from month to month, depending on a department’s use of resources c. divided among all departments in the form of a set monthly charge d. treated as general organizational costs and not charged to other departments 5 points Question 15 1. Cost-benefit analysis is performed _____ to determine the economic feasibility of an information system project and to compare alternative solutions. a. throughout the SDLC b. at the end of the SDLC c. at the beginning of the SDLC d. in the middle of the SDLC 5 points Question 16 1. The _____ of a future dollar is the amount of money that, when invested today at a specified interest rate, grows to exactly one dollar at a certain point in the future. a. probable value b. present value c. past value d. projected value 5 points Question 17 1. Search engines use a specialized computer program called a _____ that travels from site to site indexing, or cataloging, the contents of the pages based on keywords. a. portal b. thread c. digest d. spider 5 points Question 18 1. Many search engines allow people to use various combinations of _____ to improve their search success. a. sponsored links b. logical operators c. list servers d. instant messages 5 points Question 19 1. When the _____ logical operator is used to combine keywords, a search engine will retrieve all results containing either keyword. a. IF b. NOT c. OR d. AND 5 points Question 20 1. A(n) ____ is a Web-based log, or journal. a. aggregator b. channel c. blog d. digest 5 points Question 21 1. Disadvantages of online learning include all of the following EXCEPT _____. a. online learning lacks the face-to-face component that some learners find necessary b. the interface in an online learning experience may be a limitation, slowing processing performance c. online learning options generally are more expensive than traditional face-to-face learning d. online learning may not be the best option if the content is complicated or unfamiliar 5 points Question 22 1. The why, who, what, when, and how of communications are important questions that must be answered before you communicate. True False 5 points Question 23 1. E-mail usually is less formal than other written communication, but rules of good grammar, correct spelling, and clear writing still must be followed. True False 5 points Question 24 1. Although many authors use a more conversational style for e-mail, users should be aware of some simple rules of netiquette and remember that e-mail messages often are forwarded to other recipients or groups and are as important as any other form of written communications. True False 5 points Question 25 1. In a report, the executive summary is used to summarize an entire project, including recommendations, in several paragraphs. True False 5 points Question 26 1. When you have a large number of supporting documents such as questionnaires or sampling results, you should put those items in the data section located at the end of the document. True False 5 points Question 27 1. A presentation should be planned in three stages: the introduction, the information, and the summary. True False 5 points Question 28 1. When preparing a presentation, the first step (and perhaps the most important) is to prepare an overall outline that will be the foundation of the presentation. True False 5 points Question 29 1. When preparing for a presentation, try to anticipate the questions an audience will ask so a response can be prepared ahead of time. True False 5 points Question 30 1. CASE tools can reduce costs, speed up development, and provide comprehensive documentation that can be used for future maintenance or enhancements. True False 5 points Question 31 1. Modern programming languages, such as Visual Basic and Java, are called non-procedural, or event-driven, languages because instead of writing a series of sequential instructions, a programmer defines the actions that the program must perform when certain events occur. True False 5 points Question 32 1. Once a data element has been defined in the repository, it can be accessed and used by processes and other information systems. True False 5 points Question 33 1. Visual Studio 2010 includes various application development tools that are specifically designed to support Microsoft’s Web-based application development strategy. True False 5 points Question 34 1. Each systems development approach has a set of tools that work especially well for that method. True False 5 points Question 35 1. Widespread use of object-oriented languages has spurred interest in O-O CASE tools, which can provide a seamless development sequence from planning to actual coding. True False 5 points Question 36 1. It seems clear that CASE tools will continue to evolve and become more powerful. True False 5 points Question 37 1. System developers will sometimes choose simpler, low-tech methods and techniques as modeling tools. True False 5 points Question 38 1. Direct costs are costs that can be associated with the development of a specific system. True False 5 points Question 39 1. Indirect costs, or overhead expenses, cannot be attributed to the development of a particular information system. True False 5 points Question 40 1. Fixed costs are costs that are relatively constant and do not depend on a level of activity or effort. True False 5 points Question 41 1. Variable costs are costs that vary depending on the level of activity. True False 5 points Question 42 1. Positive benefits increase revenues, improve services, or otherwise contribute to an organization as a direct result of a new information system. True False 5 points Question 43 1. Cost-avoidance benefits refer to expenses that would be necessary if a new system is not installed. True False 5 points Question 44 1. When conducting a payback analysis, the time it takes for the accumulated benefits of an information system to equal the accumulated costs of developing and operating the system are calculated. True False 5 points Question 45 1. ROI (return on investment) measures the overall rate of return for a total period, and annual return rates vary considerably. True False 5 points Question 46 1. Google is an indexed search engine that organizes and ranks the results of a search. True False 5 points Question 47 1. In implied Boolean logic, symbols are used to represent Boolean operators, such as a plus sign (+) for AND, and a minus sign (-) for NOT. True False 5 points Question 48 1. Most search engines provide an advanced search feature that offers a fill-in form. True False 5 points Question 49 1. One approach to access the invisible Web is to use a search engine to locate a portal, or an entrance to a searchable database by including the word, database, as a required search term. True False 5 points Question 50 1. Social networking sites such as MySpace, Facebook, Twitter, and LinkedIn have gained enormous popularity in recent years. True False 5 points Question 51 1. In many cases, FAQs describe the particular netiquette, or Web guidelines for protocol and courtesy, that exist on a particular newsgroup or site. True False 5 points Question 52 1. Newsletters are a convenient way to keep current on topics of interest. True False 5 points Question 53 1. Web publishers use RSS feeds to distribute news and updates to subscribers, who can read the content with software called an RSS reader. True False 5 points Question 54 1. A computer called a list server directs e-mail to people who subscribe to, or join, a mailing list. True False
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