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1) First-order half-life is equal to
A. 1/k D. 2k+1
B. K a. NOTA
C. 0693/k
2) The buffer equation is also known as:
A. Young’s equation D. Stoke’s Law
B. Charle’s Law E. Henderson-Hasselbalc h
C. Bolye’s Law equation
3) The decay of radioactive atoms occurs.
A. At constant rate D. At constantly increasing rates
B. As a first-order reaction E. As a second-order rate
C. As a zero-order reaction
4) According to the Poiseuille equation, the factor that has the relatively greatest influence
on rate of flow of liquid through a capillary tube is the
A. Length of the tube D. Raduis of the tube
B. Viscosity of the liquid E. Temperature of the liquid
C. Pressure differential on tube
5) Which of the following reference sources has the most extensive listings of sodium
chloride equivalents and freezing point depression values?
A. Merck Manual D. USP/NF
B. Merck Index E. USP DI
C. Remington
6) Although isotonicity is dessrable for almost all parenterals, it is particularly critical for
what preparations
A. Intra-articular D. Intravenous
B. Intradermal E. Subcutaneous
C. Intramusclar
7) The osmotic pressure of 0.1 molar dextrose solution will be approximately how many
times that of a 0.1 molar sodium chloride?
A. 0.5 D. 3
B. 1 E. 4
C. 2
8) Parenteral solutions that are isotonic with human red blood cells have an osmolality of
approximately how many mOsm/L?
A. 20
B. 40
C. 50
D. 150
E. 300
9) Which of the following parenteral solutions is considered the most closely approximate
the extracellular fluid of human body?
A. Dextroe 2.5 and sodium chloride 0.45%
B. Lactated Ringer’s Injection
10) An isotonic solution has that same
C. Ringer’s Injection
D. Sodium Chloride Injection
E. Sodium Lactate Injection
A. Salt content as blood B.
pH as blood
D. fluid pressure as blood
E. osmotic pressure as blood
C. specific gravity as blood
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11) Mixing hypertonic solution with red blood cell will cause of the red blood cells
A. Bursting C. Crenation
B. Chelating D. Hemolysis
E. Hydrolysis
12) Sodium chloride equivalents are used to estimate the amount of sodium chloride needed
to render a solution isotonic. The sodium chloride eqiuvalent or “E” value may be defined
as the
A. Amount of sodium chloride that is theoretically equivalent to 1 gram of a specific
B. Amount of a specified chemical theoretically equivalent to 1 gram of a specificied
C. Milliequivalents of sodium chloride needed to render a solution isotonic
D. Weight of a specified chemical that will make a solution isotonic
E. Percent sodium chloride need to make a solution isotonic
13) Another method for adjusting solution to isotonicity is based upon
A. Boiling point elevation D. Milliequivalent calculation
B. Blood coagulation time E. Refractive index
C. Freezing point depression
14) All aqueous solutions that freeze at -0.52° are isotonic with red blood cells. They are
also iso-osmotic with each other. Which of the following apply?
A. Both statement are true
B. The first is true but the second is false
C. The second statement is true but the first is false
D. Both statement are false
E. A and D may be applied
15) A specific drug has first-order biological half-life of 4 hours. This half-life value will
A. Be independent of the initial drug concentration
B. Increase when the concentration of the drug increase
C. Decrease when the concentration of the drug increase
D. Decrease if the patient has renal impairment
E. Be the same whether the drug level is determined in the blod or by observing the
pharmacological action
16) To prepare a buffer system with the greatest buffer capacity at pH of 4.0, one would use
which one of the following acids?
A. Acetic (pKa= 4.76) D. Lactic (pKa= 3.86)
B. Acetylsalicylic (pJa= 3.49) E. Salicylic (pKa= 2.97)
C. Boric (pKa= 9.24)
17) Most drugs are metabolized or eliminated from the body by first-prder kinetics. This
implies that the amount of drug metabolized or eliminated
A. Is constant
B. Changes wit time but is not dependent on the concentration of drug in blood
C. Changes with time and is dependent only on the concentration of drug in blood
D. is dependent of drug concentration in the blood
18) The biological half-life of a drug
A. Is constant physical property of the drug
B. Is a constant chemical property of the drug
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C. Is the time for one-half of the therapeutic activity to be lost
D. May be decreased by giving the drug by rapid IV injection
E. Depends entirely on the route of administration
19) The decay constant of a radioisotope is 0.96/hour. At half-life of the radioisotope is
A. 100 hours B.
1 hour
C. 14 hours
D. 10 hours
E. 69 hours
20) A drug is said to have a biological half-life of 2 hours. At the end of eight hours, what
percentage of the drug’s original activity will remain?
A. 6.25% D. 50%
B. 12.5% E. 2.5%
C. 25%
21) The PBE is based on
A. Arrhenius theory of acid and bases
B. Browsted-Lowry theory
C. Lewis Electron Theory
D. A strong acid and its salt
E. A weak acid and it salt
22) A buffer system is usually a combination of
A. A weak acid and a weak base
B. A strong acid and its conjugate base
C. A weak acid and its cinjugate base
D. A strong acid and its salt
E. A weak acid and its salt
23) The following factors may affect buffer activity, except
A. Temperature D. Addition of nuetral salts
B. Pressure E. A and B are correct
C. Dilution with water
24) If the buffer solution is prepared using equal concentrations of acetic acid and sodium
acetate, the pH would then be
A. 1 D. Equal to ½ of pKa
B. 14 E. Lesser than 1
C. Equal to the pKa
25) The biological buffer system inclouding solvents
Oxyhemoglobin II.
III. Phosphates
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
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26) The following are aprotic solvents
I. Carbon
tetrachloride II. Methane
III. Phenol
A. I only B.
III only
D. II and III only
C. I and II only
27) Protolysis
A. Involves the exchange of proton from bases to acids
B. Involves the transfer of protons from acids to bases
C. Determines the strength of a solvent
D. Is the determination of an acid to free a proton
E. Is the destruction of acids and bases 28) pH is mathematically
A. the log of the hydroxyl ion concentration
B. the negative log of the hydroxyl ion concentration
C. the log of the hydronium ion concentration
D. the negative log of the hydronium ion concentration
29) Data required to determine the pH of a buffer system include
I. Molar concentration of the weak acid
II. The pKa of the weak acid
III. The volume of solution present
A. I only D. II and III only
B. III only E. I, II, III
C. I and II only
30) pH is equal to pKa at
A. pH 1 D. the end point
B. pH 7 E. the half-neutralization point
C. neutralization
31) Units for expressing radioisotope decay include the
I. Rad
II. Curie
III. Becquerel
A. I only D. II and III only
B. III only E. I, II, III
C. I and II only
32) Which one of the following forms of radiation has the greatest penetrating power?
A. Alpha radiation D. X-ray
B. Beta radiation E. Ultraviolent
C. Gamma radiation
33) A constituted drug solution assays at 15mg/mL after 24 hours. What is the first-order
reaction rate if the original solution concentration was 2.0 mg/mL?
A. 0.2/day D. 0.33/day
B. 0.25/day E. 0.5/day
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C. 0.3/day
34) By storing the above reconstituted drug solution in the refrigerator, its halflife is extended
to 4 days. What will be the concentration of the drug solution (mg/mL)?
A. 0.25 mg/mL
B. 0.5 mg/mL
C. 1.0 mg/mL
D. 1.2 mg/mL E. 1.5 mg/mL
35) The temperature at which a gas liquefies at the maximum vapour pressure the liquid
form can achieve
A. Absolute temperature
B. Critical temperature
C. Melting point
D. Flash point
E. Boiling point
36) The polymorphic form of cacao butter that is most suitable in suppository preparation
A. Gamma
B. Alpha
C. Beta prime
D. Beta
E. Epsilon
37) These are physical properties of drug molecules that are dependent on the structure
arrangement of the atoms within the molecule
A. Additive D. Subjective
B. Constitutive E. AOTA
C. Colligative
38) Refraction occurs when there is
I. Entrance of light thru a denser substance
II. Passage of light thru this substance is slow
III. Bending of the light away from the interface rather than towards it
IV. Bending of a wave more quickly as it passes though the interface
A. I and II D. II and III
B. II and III E. I, II, and III
C. II and III
39) An instrument that measures optical rotation is
A. Spectrophotometer D. Manometer
B. Refractometer E. Optical Rotator
C. Polarimeter
40) These are solutions that do not adhere to the Raoult’s Law throughout the entire range
of composition, where no uniform attractive forces exist
A. Ideal solution D. B and C are correct
B. Non- Ideal solution E. A and C are correct
C. Real solutions
41) The molal elevation constant (Kb) is also known as
A. Ebullioscopic constant D. Specific reaction rate
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B. Cryoscopic constant constant
C. Osmotic pressure constant E. Ionization contant
42) The following are considered strong electrolytes
I. HCl
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I and III
D. I, II, and III
E. I, II and IV
43) The parameter that is dynamic equilibrium when dissolution of electrolytes occur
A. Concetration of the reactants
B. Concentration of the products
C. Velocities of the forward and reverse reactions
44) A species that can function either as an acid or a base
A. Polyprotic
B. Ampholyte
C. Polymorphic
D. Zwitterions
E. Aprotic
45) pH as Sorensen suggested, is described as following
I. A simplified method of expressing the hydroxyl ion concentration II. The
hydrogen ion potential
III. The common log of the reciprocal of the hydrogen ion concentration
IV. Is expressed in numeric scale of 0 to 14
A. I, II and II
B. II, III and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I and III
E. I, II , III and IV
46) A equation that calculates the pH of the buffer solution and the change in the pH upon
the addition of an acid or a base
A. Buffer constant
B. Buffer capacity
C. Maximum buffer capacity
D. A and C are correct
47) It is the ratio of the increment of strong base (or acid) to the small change in pH brought
about by its addition
A. Buffer equation
B. Henderson-Hasselbach equation
C. Noye’s-Whitney Equation
D. Arrhenius Equation
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48) This occurs when the pH of the urine goes beyond pH 7.4
A. H+ ions are excreted by the kidneys
B. H+ ions are retained by the kidneys
is excreted by the kidneys
is retained by the kidneys
E. A and D are correct
49) This is a method of measuring tonicity wherein the effect of various solutions is observed
on the appearance of the red blood cells suspended in the solutions
D. VP elevation
D. I and IV
E. I, II and III
C. III and IV
51) A change in appearance, palatability, uniformity, dissolution and suspendability are
examples of this kind of instability
A. Chemical E. AOTA
B. Physical
C. Microbiologic
D. Therapeutic
52) The following are Non- Newtonian classes of flow, EXCEPT
A. Plastic D. Parallel
B. Psuedoplastic E. Thixotropic
C. Dilatant
53) The slope ogf the line that is equal to K0, when a plot with concentration on the vertical
axis and time on the horizontal axis is made
A. Zero order reaction
B. First order reaction
C. Second order reaction
D. Third order reaction
E. First and Second order reaction
54) The most form of the drug that undergo an apparent zero- order reaction kinetics are
A. Solids D. solutions
B. Solutions E. suppositories C. Suspensions
55) Pharmaceutical preparations with high viscosities include
A. Syrups D. Suspensions
B. Mucilages E. AOTA C. Jellies
56) These are formulated to react in water CO2 affecting partial anesthesia of the
sensory buds of the oral cavity, thereby covering up saline and bitter tastes
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A. Suspensions D. Solutions
B. Emulsions E. Granules
C. Effervescent granules
57) Which of the following intermolecular bond is involved in the attraction of electrons of
nonpolar molecules resulting to transient polarity?
A. Dipole-dipole forces D. ion-dipole interaction
B. Dipole-induced dipole forces E. ion-ion interaction
C. Ion- induced dipole interaction
58) This is a physical property of systems that is dependent on the number or quantity of
particles in solution
A. Additive property D. NOTA
B. Constitutive property E. AOTA
C. Colligative property
59) Official method of the USP for determining specify gravity
A. Floatation method D. Pycnometer method
B. Braume method E. Westphal balance
C. Manometric method
60) . Which gas law states that pressure is inversely proportional to the volume occupied?
A. Boyle’s law D. Ideal Gas law
B. Charle’s law E. NOTA
C. Gay-Lussac’s law
61) Chloramphenicol has three crystal forms. This capability of a crystal to change from one
form to another is known as
A. Enantiomerism D. NOTA
B. Polymorphism E. AOTA
C. Stereoisomerism
62) USP method of determining particle size distribution
A. Optical microscopy D. Particle volume measurement
B. Sieving E. NOTA
C. Sedimentation method
63) In liquid dosage forms, if the dispersed particle is more than 0.1 microns, the system is
A. True solution D. NOTA
B. Colloidal dispersion E. AOTA
C. Coarse dispersion
64) Phenomenon wherein solubility is increased upon addition of salt
A. Salting in D. Precipitation
B. Salting out E. NOTA
C. Caking
65) Which of the following is indicated for a dehydrated person?
A. Hypertonic D. isosmotic
B. Isotonic E. NOTA
C. Hypotonic
66) . Method of adjustment of tonicity wherein a stock solution is isotonic is added to bring
the solution into volume
A. Class I D. Cryoscopic method
B. Sodium chloride equivalent E. NOTA
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C. White Vincent
67) Which of the following are highly hydrophilic agents and have high HLB value
A. SPAN D. antifoaming agent
B. TWEEN E. surfactants
C. Wetting agents
68) A problem commonly encountered in emulsions wherein the dispersed phase floats
A. Creaming D. inversion
B. Aggregation E. separation
C. Coalescence
69) Classify sodium lauryl sulphate as synthetic emulsifying agent
A. Anionic D. NOTA
B. Cationic E. AOTA
C. Non-ionic
70) The type of system in semisolid and fluid preparations where viscosity increases with
time ( upon standing )
A. Thixotropic D. dilatant
B. Rheopectic E. pseudo-dilatant
C. Eutectic
71) Which of the following is not a colligative property of solutions? A. Freezing point
depression D. Molecular weight]
B. Osmotic pressure E. NOTA
C. Vapour pressure
72) ___ are molecules whose mirror images are non-super imposable
A. Enantiomer D. analogue
B. Isomer E. NOTA
C. Diastereoisomer
73) . One gram of a salt dissolves in 20 ml of water. What is its solubility ?
A. Very soluble D. sparingly soluble
B. Freely soluble E. practically soluble
C. Soluble
74) Which of the following can be used as a diluent , binder and disintegrant ?
A. Lactose D. microcrystalline cellulose
B. Sorbitol E. magnesium carbonate
C. Starch
75) Glidants are added to tablets in order to improve flow properties and reduce
interparticulate friction. They prevent the following problems except ______
A. Bridging D. rat holing
B. Arching E. NOTA
C. Sticking
76) . Problems commonly encountered in suspensions where there is claying of the
sediments due to very slow settling race of the particles
A. Creaming D. coalescence
B. Caking E. NOTA
C. Particle growth
77) Convert 25.44 decigram to nanogram
A. 2.5 x 10
D. 2.5 x 10
B. 2.5 x 109 E. 2.5 x 1015
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C. 2.5 x 10
78) The slope of a line can be calculated by
A. ∆y/ ∆x D. NOTA
B. ∆x/ ∆y E. AOTA
C. B= sxx/ syy
79) .In the equation of the expressed as y=a+bx , a is the
A. Slope D. Pearson coefficient
B. Intercept E. NOTA
C. Correlation coefficient
80) An acid dissociation constant, denoted K
is the equilibrium constant for the
dissociation of an acid. It is the primary way in which the _______ is gauged.
A. Ionization of an electrolyte D. A and b are correct
B. Strength of an acid E. AOTA
C. Hydrolysis reaction
81) Acetic acid has a Ka of 1.8x10
while formic acid has a Ka of 1.8x10
under the _____,
this indicates that the ________ directly releases more protons into an aqueous solution.
A. Bronsted-lowry acid-based theory,
B. Lewis theory, HAc
C. Bronsted-Lowry acid-base theory, formic acid
D. Arrhenuis, formic acid
82) pK
which is equal to the ______ of K
( cologarithm of K
A. Negative decimal logarithm D. logarithm of Ka
B. Negative antilog E. Antilog of Ka
C. Antilog
83) A _____ is a species which donates an electron pair to form a bond. This is a special
type of covalent bond because the bond is formed by two electrons from one species
and none from the other.
A. Lewis acid D. arrhenuis base
B. Lewis base E. NOTA
C. Arrhenius acid
84) In the hydrolis reaction of ammonia , ____ is the conjugate acid
A. Water D. NOTA
B. Ammonium ion E. AOTA
C. H
85) . A dilute solution of a weak electrolyte is ____ than a more concentrated solution of the
same weak electrolyte
A. Less ionized D. completely ionized B. More
ionized E. NOTA
C. Not ionized
86) Gifford’s buffer is similar to most of the borate buffers but contains mainly ___ as its salt
A. Sodium chloride D. ammonium hydroxide
B. Potassium chloride E. NOTA
C. Ammonium chloride
87) Which among the following ions has the greatest influence in fluid balance?
A. Potassium D. magnesium
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B. Sodium E. NOTA
C. Calcium
88) ____ is involved in the depolarization of the muscles causing the release of an action
A. Calcium D. magnesium
B. Sodium E. NOTA
C. Potassium
89) ____ 9s an example of a hypotonic solution
A. D
W D. Hetastarch
B. Dextrose 5% in half normal saline E. D
C. D 2.5%W
90) All of the following is linked with the importance of preparing pH-adjusted solutions
A. Drug administration D. parenteral administration
B. Blood administration E. NOTA
C. Ophthalmic administration
91) Because ___ solutions flood cells , certain patients should not receive them e.g. patients
with cerebral edema
A. hypertonic D. intravenous B. Isotonic
E. oral
C. Hypotonic
92) All of the following are isotonic solutions except
A. D
LRS D. plain Ringer’s solution B.
C. Hetastarch
93) .Because the liver converts lactate to bicarbonate. Lactated Ringer’s solution should be
given if the patient’s blood pH exceeds ______
A. 7.35 D. 7.2
B. 7.50 E. NOTA
C. 8.0
94) Hypotonic solutions cause a fluid shift from _____ to ___
A. Blood vessels : cells D. ECF to interstitial fluid B. Cells
: blood vessels E. ECF to ICF
95) Buffer capacity is the amount of an acid or base the buffer can neutralize before A. pH
changes by one unit D. pH decreases
B. pH changes to a appreciable degree E. NOTA
C. neutralization
96) Sorensen’s buffer is composed of a ( basic ) solution of dibasic sodium phosphate with
the formula
A. Na
D. Na
97) The pH range of Sorensen’s buffer should not exceed
A. Two D. Seven B.
Three E. Ten
C. Eight
98) Which of the following utilizes Sorensen’s buffer to have a pH of 6.5?
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A. Neomycin eye drops D. Pilocarpine eye drops
B. Prednisolone eye drops E. AOTA
C. Timolol eye drops
99) In Gifford’s buffer the addional salt of potassium makes the solution
A. Isotonic D. hypotonic B.
Hypertonic E. NOTA
C. Neutral
100) Gifford’s buffer is used contains which of the following salts
A. Monohydrated sodium carbonate D. potassium phosphate
B. Sodium acetate E. sodium phosphate
C. Potassium acetate
101) pH range for Gifford’s buffer
A. 5 9 D. A and C are correct
B. 9 - 10 E. NOTA
C. 10 11
102) Which among the following is the most important buffer in blood?
A. Acetate D. carbonate
B. Phosphate E. bicarbonate
C. Borate
103) Hind and Goyan’s Buffer contains _____, used to adjust the tonicity A. Sodium
chloride D. sodium carbonate
B. Sodium fluoride E. AOTA
C. Sodium fluoride
104) Colligative properties such as freezing point is influenced by:
A. Particle size D. electronegativity
B. Number of particles E. AOTA
C. Particle ionization
105) Quantities of two substances that are tonicic equivalents are proportional to the
molecular weights of each multiplied by ____
A. Its I value D. its mass
B. The “I” value of the other E. NOTA
C. The MW of the other
106) Fundamental dimensions include; I. Length II. Mass III. Volume
A. I, II and III C. I and II
B. II and III D. I and III
107) Which of the following is NOT a derived dimension?
A. Volume C. Length B.
Density D. Velocity
108) The square of a length is called:
A. Area C. mass
B. Volume D. density4
109) Density is derived quantity obtained from;
A. Volume and length C. mass and volume
B. Mass and weight D. mass and pressure
110) Official temperature for specific gravity determination is;
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A. 15.56C C. 25C
B. 30C D. 20C
111) The attraction of unlike molecules is referred to as;
A. Adhesion C. Collision
B. Cohesion D. Friction
112) Intermolecular forces of attraction occur when:
I. The binding forces that exist between molecules
II. Occur when the positive pole of one molecule is close to the
negative pole of the other
III. When the electron clouds of the two molecules interpenetrate
A. I and II C. I and III
B. II and III D. I, II and III
113) Which of the following statement is/are correct about Van der Waals forces:
I. Exist between ionic and dipolar molecule
II. London Forces
III.Weak forces of attraction
A. I, II and III C. I and II
B. II and III D. only III
114) Which of the following has the strongest bonding interaction?
A. Na-Ci C. CO2 H2O
115) The intermolecular force of attraction responsible for the formation of KL3 is
known as:
A. Dipole-dipole interaction
B. Dipole-induced dipole interaction
C. Ion-dipole interaction
D. Ion-induced dipole interaction
116) This theory that explains the behavior/characteristics of gases
A. Van der Waals Theory C. Kinetic Molecular Theory
B. Gas laws D. Le Chantelier’s Principle
117) This property is exhibited by gases within a confined system, which is due to the
collision of gas particles with one another and to the wall of the container.
A. Volume C. Elasticity
B. Pressure D. Mole
118) The interrelation among volume, pressure and temperature is expressed by;
A. Boyle’s Law C. Ideal Gas Law
B. Charles Law D. Van Holf’s Equation
119) The value of R which is 0.08205 L-atm/mole-K is determined when;
I. P is 1 atm II. T is 273 K III. V is 22.4 L
A. I, II and III C. I and II
B. II and III D. I and III
120) 6.0221 x 10²³ mole ¯¹ is known as:
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A. Molar gas constant C. Molar Volume
B. Avogadro’s number D. Acceleration of gravity
121) What pharmaceutical gas is used to sterilize or disinfect heat-labile objects?
A. Oxygen C. Nitrous oxide
B. Carbon dioxide D. Ethylene Oxide
122) The pressure required to liquefy a gas at its critical temperature is termed as;
A. Standard pressure C. Vapor pressure
B. Atmospheric pressure D. Critical pressure
123) The preparation of this drug delivery system is based on liquefaction of gases.
A. Tablet C. aerosol
B. Capsule D. suspension
124) Properties of gas molecules include; I. Molecules travel in random and
rapid motion
II. Exhibit pressure w/in confined system
III. The intermolecular forces of attraction exist between molecules are Van der
Waals forces and Hydrogen bonding
A. I, II and III C. I and II
B. II and III D. Only III
125) Which of the following statements about pharmaceutical gases is CORRECT?
A. Nitrogen is used as an anesthetic
B. Carbon dioxide is used in therapy as an antidote for carbon monoxide
C. Ethylene oxide is used to sterilize or disinfect heat-labile objects
D. CO, N and NO are liquefiable gases used as aerosol propellants
126) The transformation of solid directly into vapor state without passing through the
liquid state known as:
A. Vaporization C. Condensation
B. Evaporation D. Sublimation
127) Which of the following substances is transformed directly into gaseous state
without passing through the liquid state is known as:
A. Amyl nitrite C. Camphor
B. Halothane D. Ether
128) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Gases are liquefied at low temperature and low pressure
B. Gases are liquefied at high temperature and high pressure
C. Gases are liquefied at low temperature and high pressure D.
Gases are liquefied at high temperature and low pressure 129) Which of the
following statements is NOT correct?
A. The boiling point of water is 100°C
B. The vapour pressure of water at room temperature is 20mmHg
C. The heat of vaporization of water at boiling, ∆Hv (water) BP = 9720 cal/mole
D. Boiling point of liquid increases with lowered atmosphere pressure
130) Which of the following statements, regarding the physical properties of
Nitroglycerin, is correct?
I. Nitroglycerin, an antianginal drug, is liquid at room temperature
II. It solidifies when cooled below 14°C forming 2 polymorphs
III. When heated, it begins to decompose at 50°C and explodes at 218°C
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A. I, II and III are correct C. II and III are correct
B. I and III are correct D. Only I is correct
131) Which of the following statements about crystalline solids is NOT true?
A. Diamond is an ionic crystal
B. Boric acid is a triclinic crystal
C. Crystalline solids have distinct melting points
D. Crystals other than cubic are anistropic
132) Which of the following statement is the least characteristic of amorphous solids?
A. May exhibit polymorphism C. Randomly arranged
B. Nondistinct melting points D. isotropic
133) Substances characterized by both amorphous and crystalline properties include;
I. Beeswax II. Paraffin III.Petrolatrum
A. I and II C. I and III
B. II and III D. I, II and III
134) It is the characteristic temperature at which there is a major change in the
properties include;
A. Absolute glass temperature C. Glass transition
B. Glass critical temperature D. Glass composition
135) Boric acid is an example of ______ crystal system.
A. Cubic C. monoclinic
B. Hexagonal D. triclinic
136) An example of tetragonal crystal is;
A. Urea C. Iodine
B. Iodoform D. Sodium chloride
137) Solid substances that exhibit similar properties and characteristics in all
directions are;
A. Monotropic C. anistropic
B. Isotropic D. enantiotropic
138) The polymorphic form of theobroma oil that melts at 34.5°C.
A. Alpha C. stable beta B. Beta prime D. unstable gamma
139)This is the reversible change from one polymorphic form to another.
A. Monotropic C. anistropic
B. Isotropic D. enantiotropic
140) Polymorphs differ in; I. Solubility II. Melting point III. X-ray diffraction pattern
A. I, II and III C. I and III
B. I and III D. I only
141) Applications of liquid crystals in pharmacy include;
I. Detect areas of elevated temperature
II. In developing display system
III. In extraction, crystallization and preparation of formulations
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A. I and II C. I and III
B. II and III D. I, II and III
142) TRUE statements regarding supercritical fluid include;
I. A mesophase formed from gaseous state where the gas is held under combination
of temperatures and pressures that exceed the critical point of a substance
II. Have properties intermediate those of liquids and gases III.
Exhibit flow properties
A. I, II and III C. I and II
B. I and III D. only III
143) True statements about liquid crystal state include;
I. Thermotropic liquid crystal are prepared by heating of solids
II. Nematic crystal are soap- or grease-like crystal
III. Exhibit flow properties
A. I, II and III
B. I and III
C. I and II
D. Only III
144) Property of mesophase associated with crystals.
A. Flow property
B. Permeability
C. Amorphous
D. Birefringence
145) A useful device for relating the effect of the least number of independent variables upon
the various phases that can exist in equilibrium system containing a given number of
A. Eutexia C. Polymorphism
B. The Phase Rule D. Degrees of Freedom
146) A homogenous, physically distinct portion of a system that is separated from other
portions of the system by bounding surfaces
A. Degree of freedom C. phase
B. Component D. variable
147) In two-component system, the variables considered to described the system
completely include: I. Temperature II. Concentration III.
A. I, II and III C. I and II
B. I and III D. only III
148) In the equilibrium mixture of liquid water + benzyl alcohol, the number of phases (P) is;
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A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
149) A phenomenon that results to liquefaction when two solids are combined due to the
lowering of their melting points
A. Condensed system C. Salting-out
B. Eutexia D. Co-solvency
150) In a mixture of 34% thymol in salol, the system occurs as one liquid phase 13°C.
This point in the phase diagram is known as;
A. Triple point C. critical point
B. Eutectic point D. absolute point
151) All combinations of phenol and water are completely miscible at 66.8°C. This is termed as;
A. Upper critical temperature C. Conjugate temperature
B. Upper consulate temperature D. Transition temperature
152) At 0.0098°C and 4.58mmHg, ice-liquid water-water vapour exist in equilibrium.
This is referred to as;
A. Degree of freedom C. triple point
B. Independent variables D. critical temperature
153) The study of heat changes in chemical reactions and certain physical processes.
A. Thermodynamics C. Thermochemistry
B. Heat dynamics D. Enthalpy
154) Energy can be transformed from one form into another but cannot be lost, destroyed
or created. This statement is the;
A. First law of thermodynamics C. Third law of thermodynamics
B. Second law of thermodynamics D. Gibbs free energy
155) It is used to measure optical activity of a drug molecule;
A. Spectrometer C. Oscillometer
B. Refractrometer D. Polarimeter
156) A property of drug molecule expressed in Debyeunits is;
A. Dielectric constant C. Optical rotation
B. Dipole moment D. Refractive index
157) Properties of drug molecules which are derived from the sum of the properties of the
individual atoms of functional groups
A. Additive C. constitutive
B. Colligative D. extensive
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158) Optical rotation exhibit what type of physical property
A. Additive C. constitutive
B. Colligative D. extensive
159) A counter clockwise rotation in the planner light, as observed looking into the beam of
polarized light, this substance is define as:
A. Dextrorotatory C. polar
B. Levorotatory D. nonpolar
160) The passage of 96,500 coulombs of electricity through a conductivity cell produces a
chemical change of 1 gram equivalent weight of any substance. This is known as:
A. Henry’s Law C. Faraday’s Law
B. Coulombs Law D. Debye-Huckel theory
161 ) Semipolar solvents include;
I. acetone II. Water III. Propylene glycol
A. I, II and III C. I and II
B. II and III D. III only
162) As temperature increases, the solubility of most gases _______.
A. Increases C. unaltered
B. Decreases D. remain constant
163) A solution that contains more of the dissolved solute than it would normally contain
at a definite temperature is;
A. Saturated C. unsaturated
B. Supersaturated D. subsaturated
164) If one part of the solute requires 30 to 100 parts of the solvent, the solubility is described
A. Freely soluble C. sparingly soluble
B. Soluble D. slightly soluble
165) Water acts as a solvent due to which of the following mechanisms?
A. High dielectric constant
B. Ability to break covalent bond of potentially strong electrolytes
C. Through dipole interaction forces
D. All of these
166) The effect of pressure to the solubility of gases is expressed by this law which states that
the concentration of dissolved gas is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above
the solution at equilibrium.
A. Henry’s Law C. Boyle’s Law
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B. Raoult’s Law D. Charle’s Law
167) TRUE statements regarding solubility of gases in liquids include;
I. Governed by Raoult’s Law
II. Solubility increases with a decrease in temperature
III. Gases can be salted out with the addition of
A. I, II and III C. II and III
B. I and II D. only III
168) Gases are liberated from solutions in which they are dissolved by the introduction of an
electrolyte. This phenomenon is known as;
A. Solubility constant C. salting-out
B. Blending D. salting-in
169) Correct statements include;
I. HCI is more soluble in water than oxygen
II. α-alanine is more soluble than α-amino-n-butyric acid.
III. Phenobarbital sodium is soluble in water.
A. I, II and III C. II and III
B. I and III D. III only
170) Amphiprotic solvents;
I. acts both proton acceptors and proton donors
II. neither accept nor donate protons
III. Includes water and alcohols
A. I and II D. I only
B. I and III E. II only
C. II and III
171) For salts of weak base like codeine sulfate, as the pH increases, solubility;
A. Decreases C. not affected
B. Increases D. remains constant
172) Which of the following liquid-liquid mixture is the least characterized by complete
A. Benzene and carbon tetrachloride
B. Alcohol and acetone
C. Water and ether
D. Glycerine and alcohol
173) The increase in mutual solubility of two partially miscible solvents by another agent
is referred to as;
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A. Miscibility C. association
B. Blending D. solvation
174) In phenol-wate system, the addition of glycerine, (or succinic acid) will _______ the mutual
solubility of the liquid pair.
A. Increase C. not change
B. Decrease D. unaltered
175) The FGSA, functional group surface area (in A²) of n-butanol is 59.2, while
cyclohexanol is 49.6, therefore;
A. n-butanol is not soluble while cyclohexanol is soluble
B. n-butanol is more soluble than cyclohexanol
C. cyclohexanol is more soluble than n-butanol4
D. both liquids are not soluble in water
176) Which of the following is/are the least factors affecting the solubility of solids in liquid?
A. pH C. pressure
B. temperature D. presence of other substance
177) Real or non-ideal solutions are:
I. those in which changes in the physical properties occur when components
are mixed
II. those in which heat is given off when the mixture gets warm
III. Those in which the volume does not shrink or expand
A. I, II and III C. I and III
B. II and III D. I and II
178) Solutions for which changes in the physical properties of the solution occur when the
components are mixed are called:
A. Ideal solution C. Real solution
B. Saturated solution D. true solution
179) It describes the solubility of slightly soluble electrolytes to form a saturated solution.
A. Solubility coefficient C. co-solvency
B. Solubility product constant D. solubility fraction
180) A dissolution process accompanied by the absorption of heat is;
A. Endothermic C. idiopathic
B. Exothermic D. amphoteric
181) When a solution of AgCI is added with NaCI, some of the AgCI precipitates. This is known
A. Solubility C. salting-out
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B. Association D. common-ion effect
182) Sodium chloride does not evolve nor absorb heat when dissolved, so the heat of solution
is approximately;
A. Positive C. zero
B. Negative D. either positive or negative
183) What is the co-solvent used to enhance the aqueous solubility of the undissociated
A. Alcohol C. ether B. Water
D. acetone
184) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Solubility increases with increased particle size
B. Solubility increases with decreased particle size
C. Solubility decreases with decreased particle size
D. Solubility is not affected by particle size
185) If 100 1,000 parts of the solvent is required to dissolved 1 g of the solute.
It is described as;
A. Sparingly soluble C. very slightly soluble
B. Slightly soluble D. soluble
186) The vapor pressure of solvent over a dilute solution is equal to the vapor pressure of the
pure solvent, multiplied by the mole fraction of solvent in solution. This is according to;
A. Raoult’s Law C. Faraday Law
B. Debye’s Law D. Henry’s Law
187) Application of distribution coefficient in pharmacy include;
A. Preservation is oil/water system
B. Absorption and distribution of drugs across the biologic membranes
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
188) TRUE statements include;
I. The dissociated species of the drug molecule cannot cross biologic membranes,
so are less absorbed.
II. Ionization of weak acid is favorable at low pH.
III. Salts of weak base precipitate at low pH.
A. I, II and III C. II and III
B. I and II D. I only
189) It is the pressure that must be applied to the solution to prevent the flow of pure solvent
into the concentrated solution.
A. Vapor pressure
C. Osmotic pressure
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B. Partial pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure
190) Which of the following is a colligative property?
I. Change in osmotic pressure
II. Boiling point depression
III. Freezing point depression
A. I, II and III
C. II and III
B. I and II
D. I and III
191) When a solute is added to the pure solvent, it will alter the tendency of the molecules to
escape the original liquid. What colligative property is described?
A. Boiling point elevation C. Vapor pressure lowering
B. Freezing point depression D. Change in osmotic pressure
192) The equation πV = nRT is;
A. The ideal gas equation
B. The Clausius-Clapeyron equation
C. Raoult’s Law
D. The van’t Hoff equation
193) Based on Arrhenius dissociation theory, an acid is a substance that;