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Encircle the best answer:
1. The most malleable, corrosion resistant and one
of the heaviest metals is
a. platinum
b. gold
c. silver
d. all of the above
2. The type of chromite with an alumina content of
more than twenty (20) percent is
a. Refractory
b. Metallurgical
c. Chemical
d. Foundry
3. The best adaptable geophysical method in
search of oil is
a. Gravity
b. Electromagnetic
c. Seismic
d. All of the above
4. In the porphyry copper mesothermal deposits,
we expect to find
a. Lower Au/Cu ratio
b. Higher Au/Cu ratio
c. Au and Cu spatially resisted
d. Au and Cu have no relation at all
5. The various types of platinoid minerals found in
placer deposits are accompanied by
a. Chromite
b. Ilmenite
c. Native gold
d. All of the above
6. Heavy minerals are commercially mined as
beach sand deposits. Which is not a heavy
mineral below?
a. Rutile
b. Zircon
c. Monazite
d. None of the above
7. In the Philippines, nickel can be mined
commercially as
a. Massive sulfide deposits
b. Pyrhotite vein deposits
c. Ferruginous laterite deposits
d. all of the above
8. The ultramafic-ophiolite belt of Antique Province
is presently known to contain
a. Commercial deposits of metallurgical
b. Cupriferous pyrite deposits
c. Commercial deposits of nickel
d. Commercial deposits of phosphate
9. The uranium mineral, Uraninite found in Larap,
Jose Panganiban, Camarines Norte is
associated with
a. Skarn
b. Gossans
c. pyrometasomatic iron deposits
d. None of the above
10. Gossans which are weathering derivatives of
sulfides are also known as
a. Brown iron
b. Iron earth
c. iron hat
d. limonite cap
11. A copper deposit which normally exhibits a
hydrothermal alteration pattern, usually
concentric is known as
a. Remobilized deposit
b. Cyprus-type copper deposit
c. Kuroko-type copper deposit
d. Porphyry copper deposit
12. What is the Environmental Precautionary
Principle under sustainable development?
a. Develop natural resources sustainably
b. Rehabilitate mining projects immediately
and can be managed/mitigated
c. Decide only when risks are clearly
d. Mitigate with engineering measures
e. All of the above
13. The value of a mineral resource is traditionally
defined by which factor
a. geological knowledge (reserves)
b. profitability
c. available mining technology
d. efficient metallurgical technology
e. All of the above
14. The inter-active model of sustainability as
applied to mining involves
a. Economics
b. social systems
c. ecological systems
d. preservation of options for future
e. All of the above
15. What is the nearest definition of TOXICITY?
a. Hg-Contaminated water
b. Lack/excess of metal content in the
body that is unhealthy
c. Landfill leacheate polluting the aquifer
d. Decaying plants and animals in soil
e. All of the above
16. What is the recent modern field in geology that
also studies the effects of elements on humans,
plants and animals?
a. Biogeochemistry
b. Toxicology
c. Geobotany
d. Medical Geology
e. All of the above
17. Choose which DENR geological criteria is
critical/absolute in landfill site assessment?
a. Stable soil/rock foundation conditions
b. Distant from shallow aquifer
c. Distant from active faults
d. Distant from energy and mineral
e. All of the above
18. Golf courses, highly extractive and pollutive
industries are classified as
a. Environmentally Critical Projects
b. Environmental Compliance Certificates
c. Waste Disposal Sites
d. Environmental Infrastructures
e. All of the above
19. Which area is considered as Environmentally
Critical Area or ECA
a. Areas frequently hit by natural
b. Areas with critical slopes
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c. Water bodies for domestic supply
d. Recharge areas of Aquifers
e. All of the above
20. Seiche is considered under what type of
a. coastal flooding event
b. seismic-related hazard
c. climate change phenomena
d. hydrologic hazard
e. All of the above
21. Which can be considered as a flooding event?
a. storm surge
b. seiche
c. river overflow
d. lahar flow
e. All of the above
22. Regional Geologic Hazards for Physical
Framework - Land Use Planning can be best
shown as a
a. Regional Geologic Constraints Map
b. Regional Tectonic Map
c. Deterministic g-factor Zoning Map
d. Regional Geomorphologic Map
e. All of the above
23. A Groundwater Vulnerability Map indicates what
impact in land use planning
a. degraded watershed recharge area
b. subsidence zones due to over-pumping
c. aquifers at risk from surface pollution
d. poor aquifer systems
e. All of the above
24. What can potentially cause saline water
intrusion unto groundwater layers?
a. reversal of aquifer’s hydraulic gradient
b. mixing of seawater due to over-pumping
c. sea level rise
d. subsidence of coastal area
e. All of the above
25. Which topic is recommended as a specialized
study in an EGGAR?
a. hydrologic hazards
b. volcanic hazards
c. siltation and soil erosion measures
d. seismic risk assessment
e. None of the above
26. What mine is controversial because of a
massive tailings spill incident in 1996?
a. Marinduque Gold Mine
b. Diwalwal Gold Rush Area
c. Maricalum Cu Mine
d. Marcopper Cu Mine
e. None of the above
27. The Diwalwal Gold Rush area is a source of
what major toxic chemical pollutant?
a. Cadmium
b. Zinc Sulfide
c. Arsenic Hydride
d. Carbon-in-Leach
e. None of the above
28. Which chemical form is most toxic?
a. methyl mercury
b. inorganic Hg compounds
c. metallic Hg
d. elemental Hg
e. None of the above
29. What is the most lethal chemical form of
a. Free CN
b. Sodium Cyanide (NaCN)
c. Strong Acid Dissociable CN (SADCN)
d. Total CN
e. All of the above
30. What element follows the water cycle in terms of
its re-distribution on earth’s surface?
a. Gold
b. Mercury
c. Nickel
d. CN
e. All of the above
31. What is the modern monitoring standard used to
detect toxic metal pollution in sediments and in
the environment as well?
a. Deleterious Metal Criteria
b. Effects Range Low/Median
c. Geochemical Anomaly Cut-off
d. Comprehensive Monitoring Protocol
e. None of the above
32. Which chemical form easily degrades under
ultraviolet sunlight?
a. Mercury in Gold Amalgam
b. Methyl Mercury in water
c. Sodium Cyanide (NaCN)
d. aqueous Free CN
in tailings
e. All of the above
33. What is the process wherein uptake of
chemicals in the body of an organism and the
consequent effect is determined?
a. Bio-magnification
b. Bio-monitoring
c. Bio-assessment
d. Bio-accumulation
e. None of the above
34. Bio-magnification is exemplified by
a. fishkill due to acid mine drainage
b. methyl mercury intake thru fish by man
c. CN
contamination of water bodies
d. bacterial decomposition of mercuric ion
e. All of the above
35. What is the term for assessing adverse levels of
metals in the ecosystem thru the use of humans
and organisms?
a. Bio-assessment
b. Contamination
c. Bio-monitoringin
d. toxication
e. None of the above
36. Which is considered as a bio-monitor?
a. blood
b. hair
c. urine
d. skin
e. All of the above
37. Strong magnetism is exhibited by magnetite to a
lesser extent by
a. Pyrrhotite
b. Hematite
c. Wolframite
d. All of the above
38. The coal mine in Semirara Island has a rank of
a. Anthracite
b. Bituminous
c. Sub-bituminous
d. Lignite
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39. Gold is found to be associated with one of the
following ore deposits:
a. Porphyry copper deposits
b. Pegmatitic deposits
c. Hypothermal to epithermal deposits
d. All of the above
40. The underground porphyry copper mine in the
Philippines with the highest gold content is
a. Lepanto
b. Philex
c. Atlas-Cebu
d. Dizon-Zambales
41. The oil-bearing formation found in Nido offshore
Northwest Palawan is
a. Sandstone-conglomerate bed
b. Structural trap
c. Reefal limestone
d. all of the above
42. The porphyry copper deposit in Maricalum,
Southwest Negros contains recoverable
concentration of
a. Gold
b. Gold and Molybdenum
c. Molybdenum
d. Gypsum
43. The mineral Luzonite found in Lepanto Mine is a
variety of :
a. sulfide
b. oxide
c. arsenide
d. sulfate
44. Minerals with smaller atoms and ions tend to be:
a. Harder
b. Softer
c. Ductile
d. Malleable
45. Telluric currents are Earth’s natural currents
which are utilized in the application of:
a. Seismic survey
b. Radiometric survey
c. Induced polarization survey
d. All of the above
46. “Pressure Shadows,” “Pull-apart” and
porphyroblastic textures of pyrite in massive
sulfide deposits are characteristic features of
a. Filter press action
b. Remobilization
c. Magmatic differentiation
d. None of the above
47. Uvaruvite is a garnet silicate usually associated
with high grade deposits of
a. Copper
b. Chromite
c. Uranium
d. Phosphate
48. If a partly crystallized magma is subjected to
stresses, the fluid fraction is squeezed off from
the residual crystalline mush and this process is
a. Forceful injection
b. Magmatic stopping
c. Filter pressing
d. Magmatic injection
e. Magmatic differentiation
49. Water trapped in sediments at the time they
were deposited is known as:
a. Connate water
b. Meteoric water
c. Groundwater
d. Juvenile water
e. All of the above
50. The deepest hydrothermal deposit is known as:
a. Xenothermal
b. Telothermal
c. Epithermal
d. Mesothermal
e. Hypothermal
51. The zone of low velocity seismic zone going
beneath the continental margin and having a
deep sea trench as a surface expression is
a. Subduction zone
b. Benioff zone
c. Fore are basin
d. Back and basin
e. None of the above
52. Hydrothermal deposits that are thought to have
been formed by warm water at great distances
from their source is called
a. Xenothermal
b. Telethermal
c. Epithermal
d. Mesothermal
e. Hypothermal
53. Gossans are weathering derivatives of
a. Silicates
b. Sulfides
c. Carbonates
54. The type of chromite which commercially require
high chrome to iron ration (Cr:Fe)
a. Metallurgical
b. Chemical
c. Refractory
d. None of the above
55. A copper ore deposit which normally exhibits
hydrothermal alteration pattern is situated within
a. Potassic zone
b. Phyllic zone
c. Argillic zone
d. Phreatic zone
56. In the formation of laterite, the geochemical
process involved is generally initiated by the
removal of
a. Alumina
b. Silica
c. Alkaline Earth Minerals
d. Oxides
57. In the Philippines, cobalt is mined and recovered
a. Pegmatite deposits
b. Massive chromite deposits
c. Laterite deposits
d. Massive sulfide deposits
58. Bauxite deposits are favorably formed in:
a. above ground water level
b. below ground water level
c. at ground water level
d. no relation to ground water level
59. In a gravity survey, correction due to topography
is known as:
a. Datum
b. Bouguer
c. Dyne
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d. Elevation
60. Amongst the most predominant metals known to
be closely associated with deep ocean
manganese nodules is
a. gold
b. copper
c. nickel
d. molybdenum
61. The largest operating low grade phosphate mine
in the Philippines today is found in
a. Bataan
b. Cebu
c. Leyte
d. Antique
62. Due to the fine grain of clay minerals, their
identification is known by
a. DTA
b. Polarizing microscope
c. X-ray diffraction
d. AAS
63. The alluvial tin mineral mined in Thailand is
a. stannite
b. cassiterite
c. scheelite
d. antimony
64. An alloying element used to manufacture light
and strong aircraft part is
a. titanium
b. molybdenum
c. strontium
d. cadmium
65. The polymorhic form of silica that forms above
870 is
a. alpha quartz
b. tridymite
c. beta quartz
66. Deuteric alteration occur _________ the
crystallization of the magma
a. long after
b. during
c. after
67. Most young dolomites are formed by
a. precipitation in sea water
b. replacement of calcite
c. weathering of aragonite
d. devitrification of calcite
68. Reefs are sometimes reservoirs of oil because
of their
a. composition
b. organic derivation
c. vuggy porous and cavernous structure
d. age
69. Deposition of marine phosphatic sediments are
favored by __________ sedimentation
a. moderately rapid
b. significantly slow
c. extremely rapid
d. none of the above
70. Which of the following minerals may form from
the precipitation of saline water?
a. fluorite
b. gypsum
c. rhodochrosite
d. garnierite
71. The acceleration of gravity in the equator is
__________ compared to the acceleration of
gravity in the poles
a. less
b. greater
c. equal
72. Pay streaks of placer gold are most likely to be
a. close to bedrock
b. near surface of alluvial deposits
c. midway between bedrock and surface of
alluvial deposits
d. along riverbanks
73. Pay streaks of placer gold are most likely found
at the __________ side of the stream
a. convex
b. concave
c. bottom
74. Fissure filled with veins __________ a fault
a. are always
b. not always
75. A boron mineral obtained from Playa deposits is
a. Colemanite
b. Cryolite
c. Glauconite
d. Glaucophane
76. High grade bauxite are generally formed from
rocks with respectively ____________ free
a. high
b. low
c. no
d. moderate
77. Kaolin may form bauxite. The process is called
a. desilication
b. resilication
c. leaching
78. Tripoli is a light, porous, earthy substance that is
nearly pure
a. carbonate
b. sulfate
c. silica
d. magnesia
79. Siliceous sinter is deposited by
a. hot spring
b. sedimentation
c. evaporation
d. algal activity
80. The host rock of diamond is a pipelike intrusion
a. granite
b. peridotite
c. syenite
d. basalt
81. The sapphire and ruby of Ceylon come from a
host rock of
a. pegmatite
b. peridotite
c. granite
d. syenite
82. The magnetic susceptibility of fresh granite is
__________ as compared to that of weathered
a. lower
b. greater
c. the same
83. The hydrothermal mineral that will be deposited
earliest among the following is
a. sphalerite
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b. galena
c. molybdenite
d. cinnabar
84. The world’s largest refractory chromite mine in
Coto, Zambales is better described as
__________ type of chromite deposit
a. layered
b. podiform
c. injection
d. disseminated
85. Stibnite occurrences in Palawan are in
__________ type of deposits
a. vein
b. contact metamorphic
c. disseminated
d. massive sulfide
86. Tungsten mineral present in some replacement
iron deposits in the Philippines is
a. wulframite
b. scheelite
c. huebnerite
d. stibnite
87. Cobalt is now being mined and recovered locally
a. hydrothermal vein deposit
b. porphyry copper deposits
c. laterite deposits
d. massive sulfide
88. The Philippines’ most dominant copper mineral
product shipped to Japan is
a. chalcocite
b. enargite
c. chalcopyrite
d. bornite
e. covellite
89. One of the unique minerals found in the
Philippines which earn the official name of
Luzonite has the same chemical composition as
a. tunnantite
b. enargite
c. tetrahedrite
d. rhodochrosite
90. Cadmium is usually present in
a. galena
b. cinnabar
c. sphalerite
d. molybdenite
91. Rutile, sphene, limonite are the principal mineral
a. iron
b. abrasive
c. titanium
d. mercury
92. The formation of manganese nodules in ocean
floor involve growth essentially by __________
accretionary process
a. physical
b. chemical
c. organic
93. The basic foundation of mineral exploration is
a. geology
b. geochemistry
c. geophysics
d. geomorphology
94. Exploration aid which involves measurement of
the electrical conductivity of the sulfide minerals
is called _________ geophysical study/survey
a. radiometric
b. induced potential
c. gravity
d. magnetic
95. The oil deposit in the Nido Well off NW Palawan
is in
a. anticlinal trap
b. fault trap
c. stratigraphic trap
96. Earthquake is less destructive to man-made
structure when the foundation is
a. andesite
b. alluvium
c. consolidated tuff
d. laterite
97. Geophysical data support the idea that the earth
a. homogeneous structure
b. heterogeneous structure
c. concentric zonal structure
98. Contact metasomatism in the presence of
limestone usually yields
a. garnet
b. tremolite
c. forsterite
d. scheelite
99. Fumaroles play an important role in the
formation of
a. hydrothermal minerals
b. pneumatolythic minerals
c. metasomatic minerals
100. Which of the following minerals has a
high trace metal absorption
a. Montmorillonite
b. Kaolinite
c. Halloysite
101. Gossans are weathering derivatives of
a. silicate
b. sulfide
c. carbonate
d. oxide
102. The target of oil exploration in the
Western Palawan oil formation is
a. sandstone
b. reef limestone
c. domal structure
d. anticlinorium
103. Massive sulphide deposits of the Kuroko
type are genetically associated with
a. acidic volcanic exhalations
b. shallow acidic intrusives
c. deep seated intrusive
d. basaltic volcanism
104. The Presidential Decree which provides
for the mineral resources development signed in
1974 otherwise known as Mineral Resources
Development Decree of 1976 is
a. PD 436
b. PD 643
c. PD 463
105. The largest open pit coal deposit in the
Philippines and the first to employ bucket wheel
excavator is situated in
a. Malangas, Zamboanga
b. Semirara Island
c. Batan Island
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106. Among the semi-precious gemstone
found in the Philippines, which is the most
a. Jade
b. Bloodstone
c. Ruby
107. In the Philippines, at present
Geothermal Exploration and its utilization plays
a major role as source of energy. By far, which
is the largest area among the sites?
a. Negros
b. Southern Luzon
c. Leyte
108. Which of the following trace elements is
abundant in an ultramafic rock?
a. Nickel
b. Chromite
c. Cobalt
109. In a typical hydrothermal alteration
pattern, the ore deposit is closest to the zone of
a. Potassic
b. Phyllic
c. Agillic
d. Porphylitic
110. The type of copper deposit that is
genetically associated with acid volcanic
exhalation is
a. Cyprus
b. Contact metasomatic
c. Kielager
d. Vein type
e. Kuroko
111. In the Philippines, cobalt is mined
commercially from
a. primary nickel copper sulphides
b. epithermal deposit
c. nickeliferous laterite
d. ferruginous laterite
e. none of the above
112. Gossans are weathering derivatives of
a. oxides
b. carbonates
c. sulphides
d. silicates
e. borates
113. Residual magmatic solution left after
consolidation of magma are laden with hot water
and dissolved mineral especially precious
metals. Metallic deposits formed from this
solution is called
a. pegmatite
b. pneumatolytic
c. orthomagmatic
d. hydrothermal
e. segregated
114. Which of the following is an antimony
bearing mineral?
a. chalcocite
b. stibnite
c. chrysocolla
d. enargite
115. Which of the following is an ore of
a. braggite
b. laurite
c. stibiopalladinite
d. stibnite
e. none of the above
116. Which of the following fluids is related to
a magma
a. connate
b. seawater
c. meteoric
d. juvenile
e. none of the above
117. In the Philippines, the mineral uraninite
is found to be associated with
a. Cyprus deposit
b. Kuroko deposit
c. Porphyry copper
d. Epithermal gold
e. None of the above
118. The commercial nickel deposit that is
currently being mined in the Philippines
a. Primary-nickel copper sulfide type
b. Epithermal type
c. Laterite type
d. Bauxite type
e. None of the above
119. Which of the following mineral is absent
in a typical Cyprus type deposit
a. galena
b. sphalerite
c. chalcopyrite
d. pyrite
e. none of the above
120. A group of closely spaced, distinct,
parallel vein structures is called
a. enechelon vein
b. linked vein
c. chambered vein
d. dilation vein
e. sheeted vein
121. The vein type gold deposit that is
currently being mined in Lepanto Mines,
Mankayan, Benguet is
a. high sulphide type gold
b. low sulphide type gold
c. porphyry copper
d. contact metasomatic
e. none of the above
122. A steeply dipping rod shape deposit is
a. manto
b. pipe
c. lode
d. ore shoot
e. none of the above
123. A concentration of naturally occurring
solids, liquid or gaseous material in or on the
earth’s crust in such form and amount that
economic extraction of a commodity from the
concentration is currently of potentially feasible
a. mineral occurrence
b. positive ore
c. undiscovered mineral occurrence
d. resource
e. none of the above
124. A measured reserve can be defined if
a. ore is partially blocked on some sides
b. ore is blocked on all sides
c. blocked base on scanty drillhole data
d. blocked base on geologic inference
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e. none of the above
125. The nickel deposit that were formerly
mined in Acoje Mines, Zambales is classified as
a. garnierite type
b. primary nickel-copper sulphide type
c. epithermal type
d. skarn type
e. none of the above
126. The lowest grade of a mineralized
material that qualifies as an ore is called
a. dynamic cut-off
b. static cut-off
c. average grade
d. cut-off grade
e. none of the above
127. Paystreaks may be found in
a. convex side of the river
b. concave side of the river
c. sand bars
d. levees
e. none of the above
109. The most effective geophysical technique to
employ in searching for ground water is:
a. Resistivity
b. Seismic Reflection
c. Seismic Refraction
d. Magnetics
e. none of the above
110. The gravitational attraction between two
objects is proportional to their masses.
a. True
b. Not true
c. Not false
d. none of the above
e. all of the above
111. The gravitational attraction between two
objects is inversely proportional to the distance
that separate them.
a. True
b. Not true
c. Not false
d. none of the above
e. all of the above
112. Magnetic Force is _________
proportional to the square of the polar distance.
a. directly
b. inversely
c. not
d. sometimes
e. none of the above
113. Radioactivity is a property _________ to
certain elements.
a. Accorded
b. offered
c. shared
d. inherent
e. none of the above
114. Electromagnetism is produced
a. only naturally
b. only artificially
c. both naturally and artificially
d. by lightning
115. The most direct geophysical technique
to characterize subsurface deposits.
a. Gravity
b. Magnetics
c. Reflectivity
d. Bore-hole
e. none of the above
116. A multiple reflection is ______ deeper
than the real reflection.
a. always
b. sometimes
c. never
d. often
e. none of the above
117. Geophysical method that assesses the
electrokinetic effect of fluids moving through
permeable material.S
a. Self-potential
b. induced-polarization
c. hydrogeology
d. none of the above
118. Seismic reflection and refraction
methods are most useful in ________
a. Mineral
b. Groundwater
c. Petroleum
d. Cement
e. none of the above
119. What is the maximum magnetic field
anomaly H
produced by a spherical
magnetic ore body (30 percent magnetite) with
a diameter of 200 ft with each center 200 ft
below the surface? (5 points)
a. 0.945 oersted
b. 9540 gammas
c. 0.0945 gammas
d. 9450 gammas
120. ______ are elements with atomic
numbers different from that in their stable state.
a. Isotopes
b. Cathodes
c. Ions
d. Neutrons
e. None
121. Primary seismic waves move
__________ to the direction of propagation.
a. Transverse
b. Longitudinally
c. Diagonally
d. none of the above
122. Secondary seismic waves arrive
________the primary waves.
a. Before
b. earlier than
c. later than
d. at the same time
e. none of the above
123. The most accurate space-based
geodetic technique at large observation station
a. GPS
c. SLR
e. none of the above
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124. GPS is a fool-proof geodetic technique.
a. True
b. not false
c. false
d. not always
e. none of the above
125. __________ is measured in a seismic
reflection survey.
a. Impedance
b. Velocity
c. Attenuation
d. Density
e. none of the above
126. Can a refracted wave arrive before a
direct wave?
a. No
b. No answer
c. Yes
d. none of the above
127. In mineral prospecting, heavy metals in
the subsurface can best be detected by
___________ techniques.
a. Magnetics
b. seismic refraction
c. heat flow
d. gravity
e. none of the above
128. The Decay Constant of a radioactive
material is the same as its Half Life.
a. not true
b. true
c. always true
d. sometimes true
129. The index mineral of the blueschist
a. amphibole
b. prehnite
c. chlorite
d. garnet
e. glaucophane
130. A sandstone consists of olivine, Ca-
plagioclase and pyroxene. Its parent rock is
most likely
a. andesite
b. basalt
c. peridotite
d. diorite
e. rhyolite
131. One does not describe a mineral
a. Organic or organic
b. has a definite internal structure
c. naturally occurring
d. has a chemical composition that can be
expressed as a formula
e. none of the above
132. One of the following metamorphic rocks
is not foliated
a. hornfels
b. slate
c. gneiss
d. phyllite
e. schist
133. The daughter isotope of
134. The trace of earthquake foci that
delineates the trace of a subducting crust
towards the mantle is called:
a. seismic zone
b. island arc
c. trench
d. hotspot
e. Wadati-Benioff zone.
135. The mantle consists of:
a. lava
b. asthenosphere
c. basalt
d. peridotite
e. magma
136. One of these does not apply to
sedimentary rock description
a. mature
b. unconsolidated
c. calcareous
d. inorganic
e. fragmental
137. A fault in which the right block appears
to have moved away from the observer.
a. sinistral fault
b. dextral fault
c. strike slip fault
d. transcurrent fault
e. oblique slip fault
138. Which mineral would likely form
hematite upon weathering?
a. pyroxene
b. orthoclase
c. plagioclase
d. quartz
e. albite
139. Atmospheric window refers to that
portion of the spectrum where much of
electromagnetic energy is
a. Absorbed
b. Transmitted
c. Translated
d. Mutated
140. In the ________ region of the
electromagnetic spectrum, spectral variations
result in the visual effect called color.
a. visible
b. near infrared
c. middle infrared
d. thermal infrared
141. In visual interpretion of an image or
aerial photographs, the characteristic of tone
refers to
a. the spatial arrangement of visibly
discernible objects.
b. the relationship between the other
recognizeable objects or features in
proximity to the target.
c. the relative brightness or color of
objects in an image.
d. general form , structure or outline of
individual objects.
Showing Page:
Name: ________________________ 30 June 2005
Student No: ___________________
142. In visual interpretation of an image or
aerial photographs, texture refers to the
a. arrangement and frequency of tonal
variation in a particular area of an
b. the relative brightness or color of
objects in an image
c. the spatial arrangement of visibly
discernible objects.
d. The scale of a particular feature in the
143. Atmospheric absorption of
electromagnetic radiation results in
a. effective loss of energy to
atmospheric constituents.
b. Increase of carbon dioxide in the
c. Destruction of the ozone layer.
144. Transmission of electromagnetic
radiation.The blue sky during noonday is best
explained by
a. Mie scattering
b. Rayleigh scattering
c. Non-selective scattering
d. Atmospheric absorption
145. In a false color composite image where
Landsat bands 4, 3 and 2 are assigned to the
the red, green, and blue color guns of the
computer monitor, vegetation is shown in what
a. Red
b. Green
c. Blue
d. yellow
146. Using the same band combination as in
number 145 above, clear and deep water
bodies will appear
a. Black
b. Blue
c. Green
d. red
147. Using the same band combination as in
number 145 above, exposed reddish soil will
a. reddish tone
b. yellowish-red tone
c. greenish tone
d. bluish-green tone
148. Remote sensing is the science and art
of extracting information from an object, area or
phenomenon using a device without
a. coming into contact with the object,
area, or phenomenon
b. seeing the object, area, or phenomenon
c. a source of illumination directed towards
the object, area, or phenomenon
d. a photographic film
149. The most distinctive characteristic of the
spectral response of water is
a. the reflection of electromagnetic
radiation at the near-infrared region
b. the absorption of electromagnetic
radiation at the near-infrared region
c. the recollection of electromagnetic
radiation at the near-infrared region
d. the transmutation of electromagnetic
radiation at the near-infrared region
150. When incident light strikes an earth
surface feature, the following interaction
a. reflection, recollection, transmission
b. reflection, absorption, transmutation
c. reflection, absorption, transmission.
d. recollection, adhesion
151. Several landforms in the country are of
historical importance. One of which is the Tirad
Pass which has significance in Fil-Am war as
lead by:
a. Gregorio del Pilar
b. Emilio Jacinto
c. Makario Sakay
d. Antonio Luna
e. All of the above
152. The Tubataha Reef off coast of Palawan
is a World Heritage Site and classified as:
a. Forest Park
b. Marine Nature Reserve
c. Heritage Coast
d. Biosphere Reserve
e. All of the above
153. A large portion of the world’s freshwater
can be found in:
a. Rivers
b. Groundwater
c. Ice sheets
d. Rain
e. Dams
154. Meteorological sources of freshwater
mean coming from
a. Slits
b. Rain
c. Snow
d. Hails
e. All of the above
155. Artificial reservoirs are usually
constructed for the following purposes except
a. Power generation
b. Irrigation
c. Water supply
d. Flood control
e. Recreational sites
156. Reservoir or dam lifetime is mainly
dependent on:
a. Rate of flow of water
b. Rate of evaporation
c. Rate of precipitation
d. Sedimentation rate
e. None of the above
157. Changes in river sinuosity means
changes in:
a. Flow direction
b. Flow rate
c. Discharge volume
d. River meandering
e. River valley
158. Drip sprinkle is an agricultural practice
having relevance with water management in the
aspect of:
a. Resource acquisition
b. Redistribution
c. Water treatment
d. Sewage disposal
e. All of the above
Showing Page:
Name: ________________________ 30 June 2005
Student No: ___________________
159. Desalination of seawater can be done
commercially through the following processes
except for:
a. Evaporation and condensation
b. Reverse osmosis
c. All of the above
160. Using seismic reflection technique, the
earth’s subsurface can be mapped by
measuring a) attenuation b) density c) seismic
velocity d) acoustic impedance d) none of the
161. The major application of gravity method
is a) oil and gas exploration b) mineral
exploration c) engineering geology d)
geological reconnaissance e) none of the
162. Which among the following geophysical
methods can directly locate chromite deposits
a) magnetic b) resistivity d) self potential e)
gravity f) none of the above
163. Heavy rains are common source of a)
electromagnetic noise b) electrical noise c)
magnetic noise d) seismic noise e) none of
the above
164. A natural noise may originate from a)
lightning b) wind c) waves d) earthquake e)
all of the above
165. A coherent noise may come from a)
distribution line b) sewer lines c) gas pipes d)
cable TV wires e) none of the above
166. The upper mantle is virtually a)
ferromagnetic b) diamagnetic c) paramagnetic
d) non-magnetic e) none of the above
167. The type of magnetization acquired by a
material as it cools past the Curie Point is a)
isothermal remanent b) Viscous remanent c)
thermo-remanent d) depositional remanent e)
chemical remanent
168. Sedimentary rocks is usually a)
ferromagnetic b) paramagnetic c)
diamagnetic d) non-magnetic e) none of the
169. Exploration technique(s) used in
locating mineral deposits a) geological b)
geophysical c) geochemical d) remote
sensing e) all of the above
170. Refers to regular cyclic change in the
magnetic elements for a e\period of about 24
hours upon which irregular disturbances are
superimposed on the field data a) secular b)
magnetic storms c) artificial variation d)
diurnal e) none of the above
171. The first wave to arrive in a seismic
station is a) compressional b) shear c)
reflected ray d) refracted ray e) direct ray
172. The type of wave that can travel
through solid, liquid and gasses is a) shear
wave b) Raleigh wave c) Love wave d)
compressional wave e) none of the above
173. Gravity correction due to changes in the
elevation of station with respect to the mean
sea level is called a) bouguer b) free-air c)
terrain d) tidal e) isostatic
174. The most appropriate technique in
locating porphyry copper deposit is a) resistivity
b) electromagnetic c) gravity d) self potential
e) none of the above.
175. Fluvial hazards are caused by:
a. River waters
b. Glaciers
c. Earthquake
d. Volcanic eruption
_____1. A unique mineral found in the
Philippines with the official name Luzonite
has practically the same composition as
_____2. Overturned strata invalidates the
law of superposition.
_____3. Shallow type of ore deposits formed
by ascending hot mineralizing solution is
called epithermal.
_____4. Differentiation is the process by
which magma, more or less homogeneous
in the beginning, separates to form a series
of rocks of different composition.
_____5. X-ray diffractometer is an instrument
which detects gamma rays from radioactive
_____6. The texture of any given rocks is
always determined by the rate of
_____7. Diotomaceous earth, formed from
the accumulation of the silica parts of
minute organisms is used as an industrial
_____8. In geochemical exploration, trace
elements in soil, water and rock show that
mercury is more mobile than copper and
_____9. An emergent shoreline is
characterized by a broad beach.
_____10. A limestone’s topography is
characterized by heavy vegetation and the
presence of sink-holes.
_____11. The heat flow from the crest of mid-
ocean ridges is less compared to normal
values in the ocean areas.
_____12. Geophysical data support the idea
that the earth has a concentric zonal
_____13. For general classification, a rock
with more than 50% mafic minerals is
termed basalt and one with less than 50%
mafic minerals is andesite.
_____14. Basalt magma produces volcanic
glass when suddenly extruded to the
surface, produces normal basalt when it
flows from a vent and is a gabbro under
slow subsurface cooling.
_____15. The type of chromite which
commercially require a high Cr to Fe ratio is
_____16. Gossans are weathering derivatives
of silicates.
_____17. Exploration involving a
measurement of electrical conductivity of
the sulfide minerals is induced polarization.
_____18. The target of oil exploration in
Western Palawan is reefal limestone.
_____19. In a typical hydrothermal alteration
pattern, the ore deposit is closest to the
phyllic zone.
Showing Page:
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Student No: ___________________
_____20. X-ray diffractometer is an instrument
which detects gamma rays from radioactive
_____21. Deposition of marine phosphate
sediments are favored by extremely rapid
_____22. The formation of Kaolin from
Bauxite is facilitated by desilification.
_____23. Minerals that have similar chemical
properties are known as pseudomorphs.
_____24. If not for secondary enrichment,
important manganese deposits in the
Philippines would not have been worked
_____25. Quartz, albite, and nepheline could
co-exist in one rock.
_____26. The Klondyke formation was
deposited at bathyal depth.
_____27. Overturned strata invalidate the law
of superposition.
_____28. Erosion is the breaking down of
rocks as a consequence of chemical
decomposition and mechanical
disintegration of pre-existing rocks .
_____29. Magmatic water is hot and highly
aqueous solution formed when the
temperature of magma is reduced
significantly to allow liquid water to exist as
separate phase.
_____30. Maturity is a measure of the extent
to which chemical composition and
disintegration have gone toward completion.
_____31. The texture of any given igneous
rock is always determined by the rate of
_____32. Granite may also be an extrusive if
and when the closing domal roof breaks to
allow exit or passage of the still molten
_____33. Differentiation is a process by which
the magma, more or less homogeneous to
start with, separates to from a series of
rocks of different composition.
_____34. The angles of inclination between
like faces on the crystals of any species are
essentially constant
_____35. The structure of pyrite is similar to
that of fluorite
_____36. A form whose faces meet all axes is
called dome
_____37. Most young dolomites are formed
by precipitation in seawater
_____38. High grade bauxite is generally
formed from rocks with relatively no free
_____39. The world’s largest refractory
chromite mine in Coto, Zambales is
generally known as dessiminated type of
_____40. Garnierite, a nickel mineral of
hydrated magnesium silicate is formed by
residual weathering of basic rocks like
basalt and gabbro.
_____41. The major massive sulfide deposits
in the Philippines are usually formed by
supergene enrichment process and are
generally associated with volcanic rocks
_____42. In geochemical exploration trace
elements in soil, water and rock show that
molybdenum is more mobile than copper
and lead
_____43. Manganese deposits in the
Philippines are generally of sedimentary
origin associated with chert and related to
volcanic rocks.
_____44. Sta. Ines iron deposit in the
province of Rizal is a product of contact
metasomatic process involving intrusion of
diorite into serpentine.
_____45. Contact metamorphism is a process
generally in stages of prophylitization,
sericitation and silicification
_____46. Hydrothermal alteration is the effect
resulting from reaction of early crystals and
later magmatic residues
_____47. Gabbro is an intrusive rock with
extremely large crystals generally containing
rare earth minerals
_____48. Shallow type of ore deposit formed
by ascending hot mineralizing solution is
called mesothermal
_____49. When winds carry sands and cover
a land surface, not previously affected by
agents of deposition, an unconformity is
_____50. Generally, the sequence of primary
sedimentary deposition starts with the base
conglomerate followed by sandstone and
finally by shale on top due to the ability of
the coarser and heavier materials to settle
_____51. In general, pressure increases
solubility and a release in pressure causes
precipitation from water solution
_____52. Magmas may be generated by three
distinguishing processes recombination of
them, such as increase of heat, decrease of
pressure and change of composition
_____53. Differentiation is a process by which
the magma, more or less homogeneous to
start with, separates to form a series of
different composition
_____54. Assimilation of wall having a
composition different from that of the
magma produces a series of rocks similar to
the wall rock
_____55. Karst: topography is commonly
exhibited by unweathered, hard and
massive granitoid rocks that form the
_____56. Geochemical relief or contrast refers
to the degree of variation between the
background and peak values
_____57. The permeability of rocks with
smaller pores is lower as compared to that
of rocks with larger pores
_____58. The world’s major sulphur supply
comes from evaporates.
_____59. In a secondary enrichment zone of
a typical complex massive sulfide of copper,
zinc-lead, the leached zone is usually below
the water table
Showing Page:
Name: ________________________ 30 June 2005
Student No: ___________________
_____60. Dissemination in mining/geologic
term denotes mineral formed in lace at
micro-quartz veining and fracturing.
_____61. Cut-off grade refers to the average
grade of a deposit that can be mined
_____62. Stratiform deposit are confined to
one rock unit but not necessarily parallel to
the rock unit.
_____63. A typical low sulphidation-
epithermal gold deposit may be associated
with porphyry copper-gold mineralization.
_____64. The most productive zone for
epithermal gold mineralization is the argillic
_____65. Tonnage, volume, and grade can be
assigned to a prospect.
_____66. An ore reserve model is as accurate
as the actual reserve.
_____67. All mineral deposit may be classified
as a prospect.
_____68. Nansatsu type gold is also called as
an invisible gold deposit.
_____69. Silver is classified as a base metal.
_____70. Lead is present in a typical Cyprus
Type Deposit.
_____71. In a typical phorpyry copper skarn,
diopside and andradite can be found in the
peripheral zone.
_____72. The black ore in a typical Kuroko
deposit is called oko.
_____73. The age of porphyry copper deposit
in the Philippines are generally Miocene and
_____74. Magnetite, pyrite and bornite are
commonly found in the potassic aureole
_____75. The underground porphyry copper
mine in the Philippines with the highest gold
content is Atlas Mine, Cebu.
_____76. The phorpyry copper deposit in
Philex approximately follows the Lowell and
Guilbert Model.
_____77. The only porphyry copper deposit in
the Philippines where recoverable
concentrations of molybdenum are present
and found in Taysan, Batangas.
_____78. In economic geology, one gram per
ton corresponds to one parts per billion.
_____79. The more plastic a rocks is, the
higher is its elasticity.
_____80. Graywacke may contain volcanic-
derived fragments.
_____81. Caliche can be found in Saudi
Arabia but not in Mindanao.
_____82. Foliation develops parallel to
compressive stress.
_____83. A glassy texture indicates the high
degree of crystallinity of a rock.
_____84. Biotite is more stable than
hornblende under chemical weathering.
_____85. The compressive strength of rocks
is higher than their tensile strength.
_____86. A rock has a definite chemical
_____87. A mature sediment is made up of
well sorted and rounded fragments of quartz
and feldspar.
_____88. Graywacke is a common sediment
in island arcs.
_____89. Geographic information system or
GIS involves the collection, storage,
management, retrieval, changing, analysis,
modeling and display of spatial data. This
includes a wide gamut of data and maps
such as topographic maps, geologic map,
geochemical values and statistical data.
_____90. In GIS, one man’s information can
be another man’s data.
_____91. Global Positioning System or GPS
is a special satellite system that provides
highly accurate location data anywhere in
the world that includes position, speed of
movement and elevation.
_____92. In GIS, we can easily measure the
distance, perimeter, area and size of a
feature, for example the aerial length of a
fault system.
_____93. In data collection, time critical data
means observations or measurements that
are relatively stable over time.
_____94. Two general formats of a GIS map
are lines and vectors.
_____95. Vectors maps are cartographic map
analogs while raster maps are gridded
generalized realities.
_____96. Satellite images and digital aerial
photographs are best represented in vector
_____97. Frost wedging is a chemical process
in which freezing of water on cracks leads to
rock disintegration.
_____98. Dilation vein is a variety of shear-
zone structure.
_____99. Gouge is a claylike substance found
in fissure veins resulting from movement of
one wall upon another.
_____100. Ladder veins may be formed by
cooling or contraction of rocks.
Identify the following:
___________1. Fe-rich soil common in tropical
___________2. Limestone consisting chiefly of
shell fragments.
___________3. Stream pattern likely to affect
Mayon volcano.
___________4. Type of volcano likely to form in
the Philippines.
___________5. Rock with intermediate texture
between gabbro and basalt.
___________6. The metamorphic equivalent of
quartz arenite.
___________7. Where the oceanic crust is
___________8. The Earth layer below the
___________9. Common name for compressional
___________10. Rapid mass movement consisting
of water-saturated pyroclastic

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